Nokea
Which of the following drug that acts by inhibiting HIV protease enzyme?
- A. Lamivudine
- B. Efavirenz
- C. Stavudine
- D. Ritonavir
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rationale:
1. Ritonavir is a protease inhibitor used in HIV treatment.
2. It works by inhibiting the HIV protease enzyme, preventing viral replication.
3. Lamivudine, Efavirenz, and Stavudine are not protease inhibitors but work through different mechanisms.
4. Lamivudine is a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor, Efavirenz is a non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor, and Stavudine is another nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor.
Summary:
Ritonavir is the correct answer as it directly targets the HIV protease enzyme, unlike the other options which act on reverse transcriptase enzymes.
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The nurse is aware of which statement to be true regarding the incidence of testicular cancer?
- A. Testicular cancer is the most common cancer in men aged 30 to 50 years.
- B. The early symptoms of testicular cancer are pain and induration.
- C. Men with a history of cryptorchidism are at the greatest risk for the development of testicular cancer.
- D. The cure rate for testicular cancer is low.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Men with a history of cryptorchidism are at the greatest risk for the development of testicular cancer. This is because cryptorchidism, which is the condition of undescended testicles, is a known risk factor for testicular cancer. When the testicles do not descend properly, there is an increased likelihood of cancer development. This statement is true as individuals with cryptorchidism have a higher risk of testicular cancer compared to those without this condition.
Other choices are incorrect:
A: Testicular cancer is not the most common cancer in men aged 30 to 50 years. Prostate cancer is more common in this age group.
B: The early symptoms of testicular cancer are not pain and induration. Common symptoms include painless testicular swelling or a lump.
D: The cure rate for testicular cancer is actually high, especially when detected early. This statement is incorrect.
A patient with adrenal tumor has symptoms of hypertension, edema, hypernatremia and hypokalemia. Which drug would be most likely to prescribe to antagonize the renal and systemic side effects of the hormone excess?
- A. Spironolactone
- B. Bumetanide
- C. Furosemide
- D. Acetazolamide
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Spironolactone. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that works by antagonizing aldosterone, which is responsible for the symptoms of hypertension, edema, hypernatremia, and hypokalemia seen in adrenal tumor. By blocking aldosterone receptors, spironolactone helps to reduce sodium reabsorption and potassium excretion, thus counteracting the hormonal effects.
Bumetanide (choice B) and Furosemide (choice C) are loop diuretics that primarily work by inhibiting sodium reabsorption in the loop of Henle and are unlikely to be as effective in this scenario. Acetazolamide (choice D) is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor that works in the proximal tubule and is not indicated for the specific hormonal effects seen in this case.
When the nurse is performing a genital examination on a male patient, the patient has an erection. The nurse’s most appropriate action or response is to:
- A. Ask the patient if he would like someone else to examine him.
- B. Continue with the examination as though nothing has happened.
- C. Stop the examination, leave the room while stating that the examination will resume at a later time.
- D. Reassure the patient that this is a normal response and continue with the examination.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. This is the most appropriate action because it acknowledges the patient's normal physiological response and reassures him. It helps maintain professionalism and respect for the patient's dignity. Choice A could potentially embarrass the patient further. Choice B may ignore the patient's discomfort. Choice C abruptly halts the examination without addressing the situation. Overall, choice D is the most respectful and professional response in this scenario.
In which of the following scenarios is administration of calcium unwise with hyperkalemia?
- A. Rhabdomyolysis.
- B. Nephrotoxic ATN.
- C. Ischaemia ATN.
- D. Acute glomerulonephritis
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Acute glomerulonephritis. In this scenario, administering calcium is unwise with hyperkalemia because acute glomerulonephritis can lead to decreased glomerular filtration rate, which impairs the excretion of potassium. Calcium administration can worsen hyperkalemia by shifting potassium out of cells and into the bloodstream.
Rhabdomyolysis (choice A) can cause hyperkalemia due to cell breakdown, and calcium may be beneficial to stabilize cell membranes. Nephrotoxic ATN (choice B) and ischemic ATN (choice C) are both conditions where calcium administration can help protect kidneys from further damage, but in acute glomerulonephritis, the risk of worsening hyperkalemia outweighs the potential benefits of calcium administration.
________ is not normally found in urine, and its presence may indicate a problem with the kidneys.
- A. Albumin
- B. Bilirubin
- C. Ammonium
- D. Urea
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Albumin. Albumin is a protein normally found in blood but not in urine. Its presence in urine, known as proteinuria, may indicate a problem with the kidneys such as kidney damage or dysfunction in filtering blood. Bilirubin (B) is a product of red blood cell breakdown and its presence in urine indicates liver or bile duct issues. Ammonium (C) is a normal byproduct of protein metabolism and is excreted in urine. Urea (D) is a waste product of protein metabolism and is normally found in urine.