Which of the following drugs is associated with the reaction of tendon dysfunction?
- A. Digitalis
- B. Niacin
- C. Tetracycline
- D. Fluoroquinolones
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Fluoroquinolones. Fluoroquinolones are known to be associated with tendon dysfunction due to their potential to cause tendinitis and tendon rupture. This adverse effect is thought to be related to the drug's ability to disrupt collagen synthesis and structure in tendons. Digitalis (A) is used to treat heart conditions, niacin (B) for cholesterol, and tetracycline (C) for bacterial infections, none of which are linked to tendon dysfunction.
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Which of the following is not a side effect of the ACE Inhibitor (Captopril)?
- A. Rash
- B. Angioedema
- C. Cough
- D. Congestion
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Congestion. ACE Inhibitors like Captopril do not typically cause congestion as a side effect. The main reason is that ACE inhibitors work by dilating blood vessels, which helps reduce blood pressure and improve blood flow. Congestion is more commonly associated with conditions like allergies or upper respiratory infections.
A: Rash - Possible side effect of ACE inhibitors, but not specific to Captopril.
B: Angioedema - Rare but serious side effect of ACE inhibitors, including Captopril.
C: Cough - Common side effect of ACE inhibitors due to increased bradykinin levels.
Which of the following conditions is not treated with Nifedipine?
- A. Angina
- B. Arrhythmias
- C. Hypertension
- D. Fluid retention
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker primarily used to treat angina, arrhythmias, and hypertension due to its vasodilatory effect. However, it does not treat fluid retention as it does not have diuretic properties. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choice A, B, and C are incorrect because nifedipine is commonly used to manage these conditions.
Which of the following conditions are not treated with opioid analgesics like dextromethorphan and methadone?
- A. Pulmonary Edema
- B. Cough suppression
- C. Sedation
- D. Pain
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Sedation. Opioid analgesics like dextromethorphan and methadone are primarily used for pain management, not sedation. They work by binding to opioid receptors in the brain to reduce pain perception. Pulmonary edema can be managed with diuretics, cough suppression with antitussives, and sedation with sedatives/hypnotics. Therefore, sedation is not a condition typically treated with opioid analgesics.
Which of the following is the primary site of activity for the drug Warfarin?
- A. Kidney
- B. Liver
- C. Blood
- D. Heart
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Liver. Warfarin is primarily metabolized in the liver by the cytochrome P450 enzyme system. The liver is responsible for breaking down and activating many drugs, including Warfarin. It is where the drug's metabolism and effects are most significant. The other choices are incorrect because Warfarin's main site of activity is in the liver, not the kidney, blood, or heart. The kidney mainly excretes the drug, while the blood carries it throughout the body, and the heart is not directly involved in Warfarin's metabolism.
Which of the following is considered a class IA Sodium Channel blocker?
- A. Mexiletine
- B. Amiodarone
- C. Quinidine
- D. Procainamide
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Procainamide. Procainamide is a class IA antiarrhythmic drug that blocks sodium channels, prolonging the action potential duration. This helps to stabilize the heart's rhythm. Mexiletine (A) is a class IB antiarrhythmic drug that blocks sodium channels with fast recovery kinetics. Amiodarone (B) is a class III antiarrhythmic drug that prolongs repolarization by blocking potassium channels. Quinidine (C) is a class IA antiarrhythmic drug that also blocks sodium channels, but it is not a class IB sodium channel blocker like Procainamide.