ATI Immune System Quizlet

ATI Immune System Quizlet Related

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Which of the following is a characteristic of CTL?

  • A. They kill target cells through recognition of peptide-MHC class I complexes
  • B. They die in the process of killing a target cell
  • C. They can kill target cells by activating complement
  • D. They carry out their effector function in secondary lymphoid tissues
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because cytotoxic T lymphocytes (CTLs) kill target cells by recognizing specific peptide antigens presented on major histocompatibility complex (MHC) class I molecules. This recognition triggers the CTLs to release cytotoxic molecules that induce apoptosis in the target cells. Choice B is incorrect because CTLs do not die in the process of killing target cells; they survive to continue their immune response. Choice C is incorrect as CTLs do not kill target cells by activating complement, but rather through direct cell-cell contact. Choice D is incorrect because CTLs carry out their effector function in peripheral tissues where they encounter target cells, not specifically in secondary lymphoid tissues.

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The nurse is reinforcing teaching to a person who has tested positive for HIV. Which test should the nurse explain is done to confirm the diagnosis of HIV?

  • A. Western blot
  • B. Rheumatoid factor
  • C. Antinuclear antibodies
  • D. Immunoglobulin assay
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Western blot. This test is used to confirm the diagnosis of HIV by detecting specific antibodies produced in response to the virus. It is considered the gold standard for confirming HIV infection due to its high specificity and sensitivity. The other choices (B, C, D) are not used to diagnose HIV. Rheumatoid factor and antinuclear antibodies are tests for autoimmune conditions, while immunoglobulin assay measures levels of antibodies in the blood, not specific to HIV.

What are characteristics of the phosphate buffer system (select all that apply)?

  • A. Neutralizes a strong base to a weak base and water
  • B. Resultant sodium biphosphate is eliminated by kidneys
  • C. Free acid radicals dissociate into H+ and CO2,buffering excess base
  • D. Neutralizes a strong acid to yield sodium biphosphate,a weak acid and salt
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Phosphate buffers neutralize strong bases/acid, form sodium biphosphate, and eliminate it through the kidneys.

Which of the following is a clinical feature of Grave's disease?

  • A. Pulmonary fibrosis
  • B. Exophthalmos and goiter
  • C. Skin vasculitis
  • D. Eczematous reaction
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Exophthalmos and goiter. In Grave's disease, there is an overproduction of thyroid hormones leading to hyperthyroidism. Exophthalmos (bulging eyes) and goiter (enlarged thyroid gland) are classic clinical features due to autoimmune stimulation of thyroid-stimulating hormone receptors. Pulmonary fibrosis (A) is not typically associated with Grave's disease. Skin vasculitis (C) and eczematous reaction (D) are also not commonly seen in Grave's disease.

The best treatment for mononucleosis is:

  • A. Antibiotics.
  • B. Physical therapy.
  • C. NSAIDs.
  • D. Rest and fluids.
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Mononucleosis is caused by a viral infection, so antibiotics are ineffective. Rest and fluids are the most effective treatments as they support the body's immune response and help manage symptoms like fatigue and dehydration.

Which characteristic describes immunoglobulin E (select all that apply)?

  • A. Assists in parasitic infections
  • B. Responsible for allergic reactions
  • C. Present on the lymphocyte surface
  • D. Protects body surfaces and mucous membranes
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: IgE is involved in defense against parasites and is responsible for triggering allergic reactions by binding to mast cells and basophils.

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