Nokea
Which of the following is a clinical identifier of metabolic syndrome?
- A. Waist circumference of 38 inches for a male
- B. Waist circumference of 34 inches for a female
- C. BP of 134/88 for a male
- D. BP of 128/84 for a female
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because a waist circumference of 38 inches for a male is a clinical identifier of metabolic syndrome. This measurement reflects abdominal obesity, a key component of metabolic syndrome. Excess abdominal fat is associated with insulin resistance, high blood pressure, and dyslipidemia, which are all features of metabolic syndrome.
Choice B is incorrect because a waist circumference of 34 inches for a female is not the correct measurement for identifying metabolic syndrome in females.
Choice C is incorrect because a blood pressure of 134/88 for a male, while elevated, is not a specific clinical identifier of metabolic syndrome.
Choice D is incorrect because a blood pressure of 128/84 for a female, although slightly elevated, is not a specific clinical identifier of metabolic syndrome.
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A 79-year-old woman was admitted to the hospital a month ago with an acute ischemic stroke. Which would be the next best step in management?
- A. Start escitalopram 5 mg orally daily.
- B. Start eszopiclone 1 mg orally at bedtime.
- C. Start a high-calorie supplement twice a day.
- D. Change the time at which she gets physical therapy.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Start a high-calorie supplement twice a day. After an acute ischemic stroke, nutritional support is crucial for recovery and prevention of complications. Malnutrition is common post-stroke due to swallowing difficulties and decreased appetite. High-calorie supplements can help meet the patient's nutritional needs.
Choice A (escitalopram) is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor used for depression and anxiety, which may not be the immediate priority in this case. Choice B (eszopiclone) is a nonbenzodiazepine hypnotic used for insomnia, which is not directly related to managing the patient's stroke. Choice D (changing the time of physical therapy) may be beneficial, but ensuring adequate nutrition is more critical in the acute phase of stroke recovery.
Subtypes of elder mistreatment include:
- A. Psychological mistreatment
- B. Physical mistreatment
- C. Sexual mistreatment
- D. Financial exploitation
Correct Answer: E
Rationale: Based on the given choices, none of them individually cover all subtypes of elder mistreatment. The correct answer should include all the mentioned subtypes: psychological mistreatment, physical mistreatment, sexual mistreatment, and financial exploitation. Therefore, the correct answer is not any of the provided options, as they are all individual subtypes and not a comprehensive list of all subtypes of elder mistreatment.
Symptoms of heartburn and regurgitation are associated with:
- A. Hiatal hernia
- B. Gastroesophageal reflux
- C. Peptic ulcer disease
- D. Esophageal cancer
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Gastroesophageal reflux. Heartburn and regurgitation are classic symptoms of GERD, where stomach acid flows back into the esophagus. This causes a burning sensation in the chest and sour taste in the mouth. Hiatal hernia (A) can contribute to GERD but is not directly associated with these symptoms. Peptic ulcer disease (C) typically presents with stomach pain, not heartburn. Esophageal cancer (D) may present with difficulty swallowing and weight loss, not just heartburn and regurgitation. Therefore, choice B is the most appropriate answer.
Which is a sign of benign prostatic hyperplasia?
- A. Weight loss
- B. Bone pain
- C. Fever
- D. Nocturia
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Nocturia. Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is a non-cancerous enlargement of the prostate gland, leading to urinary symptoms such as frequent urination at night (nocturia). This occurs due to the prostate pressing against the urethra, causing urinary flow issues. Weight loss (A) is not typically associated with BPH. Bone pain (B) is more indicative of conditions like prostate cancer or metastasis. Fever (C) is not a common symptom of BPH. Therefore, D is the most appropriate sign of BPH.
Mr. Hunter, a 69-year-old man, complains of urinary frequency and urgency that have increased over the past several months. There is no dysuria, hematuria, or sensation of incomplete voiding. He drinks 2 cups of coffee daily and diet cola multiple times a day. His International Prostate Symptom Score (IPSS) is 6, with a bother score of 1 indicating mild voiding symptoms with low impact on his quality of life. His medical history includes hypertension, coronary artery disease, and benign prostatic hyperplasia. Current medications are aspirin, metoprolol, and hydrochlorothiazide. Physical examination reveals normal sized prostate. Which of the following is the best next step?
- A. Urinalysis
- B. Cystoscopy
- C. Lifestyle modifications
- D. Tamsulosin
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct next step is C: Lifestyle modifications. Given the patient's history of mild voiding symptoms and benign prostatic hyperplasia, the first approach should be conservative management. Lifestyle modifications, such as reducing caffeine intake from coffee and diet cola, can help alleviate urinary symptoms. Additionally, optimizing fluid intake and bladder habits can also improve symptoms. Urinalysis (choice A) may be considered later if symptoms persist or worsen. Cystoscopy (choice B) is invasive and not indicated at this stage. Tamsulosin (choice D) is a medication for BPH, but since the patient's symptoms are mild and bother score is low, starting with lifestyle modifications is more appropriate.