Nokea
Which of the following is an example of a live attenuated bacterial vaccine?
- A. Cholera
- B. Typhoid
- C. Anthrax
- D. Plague
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Typhoid. Live attenuated vaccines contain weakened forms of the pathogen that can replicate in the host to stimulate a strong immune response without causing disease. Typhoid vaccine is an example of a live attenuated bacterial vaccine because it contains weakened Salmonella typhi bacteria. Cholera (A), Anthrax (C), and Plague (D) vaccines are not live attenuated bacterial vaccines; they are either killed/inactivated or subunit vaccines. Live attenuated vaccines provide longer-lasting immunity compared to other vaccine types.
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Which classification of chemotherapy drugs is cell cycle phase–nonspecific, breaks the DNA helix which interferes with DNA replication, and crosses the blood-brain barrier?
- A. Nitrosureas
- B. Antimetabolites
- C. Mitotic inhibitors
- D. Antitumor antibiotics
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Nitrosureas are cell cycle phase–nonspecific, disrupt DNA replication, and cross the blood-brain barrier.
A clinical indicator of inflammation is:
- A. Decreased concentration of C3b
- B. Increased concentration of C-reactive protein
- C. Decreased concentration of MBL
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased concentration of C-reactive protein. This is because C-reactive protein is a well-established clinical indicator of inflammation, produced by the liver in response to inflammation. Choice A is incorrect because a decreased concentration of C3b is not a typical indicator of inflammation. Choice C is incorrect because mannose-binding lectin (MBL) is an acute-phase reactant that increases in response to inflammation, so a decreased concentration of MBL would not be indicative of inflammation. Choice D is incorrect as it includes all options, but only B is a valid clinical indicator of inflammation.
Which of the following is NOT a common condition associated with Type I hypersensitivity?
- A. Asthma
- B. Food allergies
- C. Anaphylaxis
- D. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). Type I hypersensitivity involves IgE-mediated reactions to allergens, leading to immediate responses like asthma, food allergies, and anaphylaxis. SLE is an autoimmune disease involving immune complexes and not IgE antibodies. Therefore, SLE is not directly associated with Type I hypersensitivity. Asthma, food allergies, and anaphylaxis are all examples of Type I hypersensitivity reactions due to IgE-mediated mechanisms.
What is the lag phase of the primary antibody response?
- A. 1-3 days
- B. 5-10 days
- C. 10-15 days
- D. No lag phase
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The lag phase of the primary antibody response refers to the time it takes for the immune system to generate specific antibodies after initial exposure to an antigen. The correct answer is B (5-10 days) because during this period, B cells are activated, undergo proliferation, differentiate into plasma cells, and start producing antibodies. This process takes time as the immune system needs to recognize the antigen, mount a response, and produce sufficient antibodies. Option A (1-3 days) is too short for the full activation and differentiation of B cells. Option C (10-15 days) is too long for the typical lag phase duration. Option D (No lag phase) is incorrect because there is always a lag phase before the peak antibody production in the primary immune response.
In a patient with a CD4 count less than 200, the most important nursing assessment would include:
- A. Bowel movements.
- B. Urinary output.
- C. Fever.
- D. Blood pressure.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A CD4 count below 200 indicates advanced HIV infection (AIDS), making the patient highly susceptible to opportunistic infections. Fever is a key sign of infection and requires immediate attention. Bowel movements and urinary output are less urgent priorities in this context.