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Which of the following is an intraoperative outcome for a patient undergoing an inguinal hernia repair?
- A. Verbalizes fears
- B. Demonstrates leg exercises
- C. Maintains skin integrity
- D. Explains deep breathing exercises
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Intraoperative outcomes refer to the immediate goals and conditions that are assessed during a surgical procedure. Maintaining skin integrity is a crucial intraoperative outcome for a patient undergoing an inguinal hernia repair surgery. This outcome focuses on ensuring that the patient's skin remains intact, without any damage or breakdown during the surgical procedure. It involves proper positioning of the patient, adequate support to vulnerable areas, and meticulous monitoring of the skin throughout the surgery to prevent any pressure injuries or skin trauma. Other outcomes listed, such as verbalizing fears, demonstrating leg exercises, and explaining breathing exercises, are more pertinent to preoperative or postoperative care rather than intraoperative outcomes.
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The client is suspected of having myasthenia gravis. Edrophonium (Tensilon) 2 mg is administered intravenously to determine the diagnosis. Which of the following indicates that the client has myasthenia gravis?
- A. Joint pain following administration of the medication
- B. Feelings of faintness, dizziness, hypotension, and signs of flushing in the client
- C. A decrease in muscle strength within 30 to 60 seconds following administration of the medication.
- D. An increase in muscle strength within 30 to 60 seconds following administration of the medication
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Edrophonium (Tensilon) is a short-acting cholinesterase inhibitor used in the Tensilon test to aid in the diagnosis of myasthenia gravis. In patients with myasthenia gravis, there is a deficiency of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction, leading to muscle weakness. By inhibiting the breakdown of acetylcholine, edrophonium temporarily increases the availability of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction.
An 8-day-old is admitted with vomiting and dehydration. His HR is 170, RR is 44, BP is 85/52, and T is 99°F. The parents ask if these vital signs are normal. Which is the best response?
- A. The BP is elevated.
- B. The temperature is elevated.
- C. The heart rate is elevated; normal for a neonate is 90-160 bpm.
- D. The respiratory rate is elevated.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A neonatal heart rate of 170 is above the normal range (90-160 bpm), which is concerning for dehydration.
A neonate, who was delivered by Cesarean section for a breech presentation, is being examined in the neonatal nursery. For which of the following complications should the nurse carefully assess the baby?
- A. Developmental dysplasia of the hips (DDH)
- B. Legg-Calve-Perthes (LCP)
- C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD)
- D. Slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A neonate delivered by Cesarean section for a breech presentation is at higher risk for developmental dysplasia of the hips (DDH). Breech presentation, especially frank breech, increases the chance of hip instability and DDH due to the positioning of the legs in utero. DDH is a condition where the ball and socket joint of the hip does not properly form, leading to potential dislocation of the hip joint. It is important for the nurse to carefully assess the neonate for signs of hip dysplasia, such as limited hip abduction or asymmetry in the thigh folds, to facilitate early detection and intervention for optimal outcomes. Legg-Calve-Perthes (LCP), Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD), and slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE) are not specifically related to breech delivery, and therefore, are less likely to be
A 10-mo-old boy has a left suprarenal mass. Surgery is accomplished with complete removal of the mass as well as the non-adherent lymph nodes; surgical biopsies are taken during surgery. The histology reveals poorly differentiated neuroblastoma with microscopic ipsilateral lymph nodes involvement. The contralateral lymph nodes are negative. Of the following, the BEST therapeutic approach for this infant is
- A. chemotherapy
- B. radiotherapy
- C. concomitant chemo-radiotherapy
- D. chemotherapy followed by radiotherapy
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Complete resection with microscopic residual disease typically warrants adjuvant chemotherapy.
Which of the ff instructions should be given to the clients family if a client with impaired swallowing has to take solid medication?
- A. Mix the medication with food
- B. Use the liquid form of the medication
- C. Check with the physician or pharmacist before crushing or breaking tablets, or opening capsules
- D. Perform ROM exercises after the medication is administered
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: It is important to instruct the client's family to check with the physician or pharmacist before crushing or breaking tablets, or opening capsules for a client with impaired swallowing who needs to take solid medication. Many medications have special formulations or coating that may alter their effectiveness if not taken whole. Consulting with a healthcare professional ensures that the medication remains safe and effective when modifying its form for a client with difficulty swallowing. Mixing the medication with food (option A) may also alter its effectiveness, so it is crucial to seek guidance before making any changes to the medication form. Using the liquid form of the medication (option B) may be a suitable alternative if available; however, this decision should also be discussed and approved by the healthcare provider. Performing ROM exercises after medication administration (option D) is unrelated to addressing the issue of impaired swallowing and medication administration.