Which of the following is classified as a mood disorder?
- A. bipolar disorder
- B. multiple personality disorder
- C. delusional disorder
- D. dissociative disorder
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Bipolar disorder, with its mood swings, is a classic mood disorder.
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A client with a borderline personality disorder tells the nurse, 'My doctor tells me there's something wrong with the hard wiring of my brain, and that's why I'm so impulsive and get so many mood swings. He said he's going to prescribe some medication.' Being aware of current practice guidelines, the nurse will prepare a teaching plan for:
- A. Lithium
- B. Fluoxetine
- C. Lorazepam
- D. Haloperidol
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fluoxetine. Borderline personality disorder (BPD) is primarily treated with psychotherapy, but in some cases, medication is used to manage symptoms like impulsivity and mood swings. Fluoxetine, a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), is commonly used to address mood instability and impulsivity in BPD. SSRIs help regulate serotonin levels in the brain, which can improve mood stability and decrease impulsive behaviors. Lithium (choice A) is used for bipolar disorder, not BPD. Lorazepam (choice C) is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety and not typically recommended for BPD. Haloperidol (choice D) is an antipsychotic used for conditions like schizophrenia and not typically indicated for BPD.
The nurse who works in a sleep clinic knows that approximately __________% of adults experience some form of sleep disorder.
- A. 10 to 20.
- B. 30 to 40.
- C. 50 to 60.
- D. None of the above.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B (30 to 40%). This range is supported by research indicating that around 30-40% of adults experience some form of sleep disorder. This percentage reflects the prevalence of various sleep disorders such as insomnia, sleep apnea, and restless leg syndrome among adults. The range of 10 to 20% (choice A) is too low based on current data. Likewise, the range of 50 to 60% (choice C) is too high and does not align with the established prevalence rates of sleep disorders in adults. "None of the above" (choice D) is incorrect as there is a documented prevalence of sleep disorders in adults, making it necessary to provide an estimate within a certain range.
Prior to discharge, the nurse plans to teach the client and family about relapse. Which items will the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Recognition of warning signs of relapse
- B. Notify the nurse of warning signs present for more than one month
- C. Lower medication dosage to manage emerging side effects
- D. Use street drugs judiciously and only in small amounts
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because recognizing warning signs of relapse is crucial for early intervention. By identifying these signs, the client and family can seek help promptly, preventing a full relapse. Choice B is incorrect as waiting for signs to persist for more than one month delays intervention. Choice C is incorrect as altering medication dosage without medical advice can be dangerous. Choice D is incorrect as using street drugs is never a safe or appropriate way to manage relapse.
Anorexia nervosa is best described as a disorder that is potentially:
- A. serious.
- B. uncommon.
- C. psychiatric.
- D. life threatening.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: life threatening. Anorexia nervosa is a serious eating disorder characterized by extreme restriction of food intake, leading to significant weight loss and potentially life-threatening consequences such as organ damage, heart problems, and even death. It is crucial to recognize the severity of anorexia nervosa as it can have devastating effects on physical and mental health. Choices A and C are partially correct, as anorexia nervosa is serious and psychiatric, but they do not fully capture the potential severity and life-threatening nature of the disorder. Choice B is incorrect as anorexia nervosa is not uncommon, affecting a significant number of individuals worldwide.
A patient diagnosed with schizophrenia tells the community mental health nurse, 'I threw away my pills because they interfere with Gods voice.' The nurse identifies the etiology of the patients ineffective management of the medication regime as:
- A. inadequate discharge planning
- B. poor therapeutic alliance with clinicians
- C. dislike of antipsychotic medication side effects
- D. impaired reasoning secondary to the schizophrenia
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The patients ineffective management of the medication regime is most closely related to impaired reasoning. The patient believes in being an exalted personage who hears Gods voice, rather than an individual with a serious mental disorder who needs medication to control symptoms. Data do not suggest any of the other factors often related to medication nonadherence.