Which of the following is reflected in an ECG due to hypokalemia?
- A. Tall T waves and Pathologic Q wave
- B. Widening QRS Complex and U wave
- C. None of the above
- D. Both A and B
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Hypokalemia, a condition characterized by low levels of potassium in the blood, is reflected in an ECG by a widening QRS Complex and a U wave. This is because potassium plays a key role in the electrical activity of the heart, and its deficiency can lead to abnormalities in the heart's rhythm as represented by these specific changes on the ECG. Choice A is incorrect as tall T waves and pathologic Q waves are more commonly associated with hyperkalemia or myocardial infarction, respectively, rather than hypokalemia. Choices C and D are also incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the ECG changes caused by hypokalemia.
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What special consideration should be taken into account when Mario prepares Richard for postural drainage and percussion?
- A. Monitoring a respiratory rate of 16 to 20 per minute
- B. Assessing the client's ability to tolerate sitting and lying positions
- C. Ensuring the client is free of signs of infection
- D. Knowing the time of the client's last food and fluid intake
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, 'Monitoring a respiratory rate of 16 to 20 per minute'. When performing postural drainage and percussion, it is crucial to monitor the respiratory rate to ensure the safety and effectiveness of the procedure. Choice B, 'Assessing the client's ability to tolerate sitting and lying positions', while important, is not directly related to the specifics of postural drainage and percussion. Similarly, option C, 'Ensuring the client is free of signs of infection', although important, is not directly linked to the procedure. Option D, 'Knowing the time of the client's last food and fluid intake', might be relevant for other procedures, but it is not the primary consideration for postural drainage and percussion.
Which individual would be at the greatest risk for deficiencies in water-soluble vitamins?
- A. An individual who regularly consumes fruits and vegetables.
- B. An individual with a high intake of dairy products.
- C. An individual who consumes a diet high in processed foods.
- D. An individual who frequently eats organ meats.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'An individual who consumes a diet high in processed foods.' Processed foods are often deficient in water-soluble vitamins such as vitamin C and B vitamins, which can lead to deficiencies. On the other hand, fruits, vegetables, and organ meats are rich sources of these vitamins, so individuals who consume these regularly are less likely to develop deficiencies. While dairy products do contain some water-soluble vitamins, they are not depleted as quickly as they are in a diet high in processed foods, making a deficiency less likely.
During the phallic stage, with which parent must the child identify?
- A. The same-sex parent
- B. The opposite-sex parent
- C. The mother or the primary caregiver
- D. Both parents
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: According to Freud's psychosexual development theory, during the phallic stage (approximately ages 3 to 6), the child starts to identify with the parent of the same sex. This identification is a crucial part of the child's development and is believed to influence their adult behavior. The process involves the child adopting the characteristics, attitudes, and values of the same-sex parent. Choice B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with Freud's theory of the phallic stage of psychosexual development.
What is the fundamental difference between nursing diagnoses and collaborative problems?
- A. Collaborative problems are managed by nurses using physician-prescribed interventions.
- B. Collaborative problems can be addressed by independent nursing interventions.
- C. Physician-prescribed interventions are incorporated into nursing diagnoses.
- D. Nursing diagnoses include physiologic complications that nurses monitor to detect status changes.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, as collaborative problems necessitate the collective expertise and skills of numerous healthcare professionals, including nurses. These problems can be dealt with through independent nursing interventions in cooperation with other team members. Option A is incorrect because collaborative problems aren't strictly managed with physician-prescribed interventions. Option C is incorrect because nursing diagnoses aim at identifying and treating actual or potential health issues, rather than merely integrating physician-prescribed interventions. Option D is incorrect because nursing diagnoses aim at identifying patient issues, not solely physiologic complications, and guide the necessary nursing care, not just monitor for changes.
Which of the following is a tricyclic antidepressant drug?
- A. Venlafaxine (Effexor)
- B. Fluoxetine (Prozac)
- C. Sertraline (Zoloft)
- D. Imipramine (Tofranil)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Imipramine (Tofranil) is a tricyclic antidepressant drug. This class of medications is used to treat depression, and they work by increasing the levels of certain chemicals in the brain that help lift mood. On the other hand, Venlafaxine (Effexor) is a serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI), Fluoxetine (Prozac) is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), and Sertraline (Zoloft) is also an SSRI. Therefore, they are not classified as tricyclic antidepressants.