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Which of the following is the first-line treatment for Anorexia Nervosa?
- A. Family-Based Therapy
- B. Cognitive Behavioural Therapy
- C. Psychodynamic therapy
- D. Humanistic therapy
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Family-Based Therapy (FBT) is the evidence-based first-line treatment for Anorexia Nervosa in adolescents, per NICE and APA guidelines.
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Several children a day are seen in the emergency department for treatment of illnesses and injuries. The situation that would create a high index of suspicion of child abuse is a child who:
- A. Has repeated middle ear infections.
- B. Complains of abdominal cramps and upset stomach.
- C. Has perineal bruises and urinary tract infections.
- D. Displays reduced functioning at school.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because perineal bruises and urinary tract infections are physical signs that are highly suspicious for child abuse, particularly sexual abuse. Perineal bruises are not commonly seen in children due to accidental injuries, and urinary tract infections in young children are rare and may indicate sexual abuse. Repeated middle ear infections (choice A) and complaints of abdominal cramps and upset stomach (choice B) are common childhood illnesses that do not necessarily indicate child abuse. Displaying reduced functioning at school (choice D) may suggest various issues such as learning disabilities or emotional distress, but is not specific to child abuse.
A patient with the diagnosis of schizophrenia, disorganized type, approaches the nurse and says, 'It's beat, it's eat. No room for doom.' The nurse can correctly assess this verbalization as:
- A. neologisms.
- B. clanging.
- C. ideas of reference.
- D. associative looseness.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: clanging. Clanging refers to the pattern of speech characterized by the association of words based on sound rather than meaning. In this case, the patient's verbalization, "It's beat, it's eat. No room for doom," demonstrates a connection based on rhyming sounds rather than coherent meaning. This is a classic example of clanging commonly seen in individuals with disorganized schizophrenia. Neologisms (choice A) refer to new words created by the individual, ideas of reference (choice C) involve believing that external events have special significance for oneself, and associative looseness (choice D) pertains to a lack of logical connection between thoughts. These choices are incorrect as they do not accurately describe the patient's speech pattern in this scenario.
A man with hypospadias tells the nurse, 'Intercourse with my new bride is painful.' Which term applies to the patient's complaint?
- A. Dyspareunia
- B. Erectile dysfunction
- C. Premature ejaculation
- D. Genito-pelvic pain/penetration disorder
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Genito-pelvic pain/penetration disorder. This term is applicable because it specifically refers to pain experienced during intercourse, which aligns with the patient's complaint. Hypospadias can lead to difficulties in penetration and subsequent pain during intercourse.
Choice A: Dyspareunia refers to persistent or recurrent pain during sexual intercourse, which is a broader term than what the patient is experiencing.
Choice B: Erectile dysfunction is the inability to achieve or maintain an erection, which is not directly related to the patient's complaint of pain during intercourse.
Choice C: Premature ejaculation is the early release of semen during sexual activity, which is unrelated to the pain experienced by the patient during intercourse.
A woman tells the nurse that her husband abuses her most often when he is intoxicated, just as his father had beaten him and his mother. The woman is aware of the location of a safe house and has considered leaving home with her two children, but she cites being brought up to believe 'you keep quiet and stay together, no matter what happens.' She states the husband is always apologetic and remorseful after an incident. What evidence exists that the husband is at risk of becoming a perpetrator of physical abuse? He:
- A. is unable to make lasting behavioral changes.
- B. was an abused child.
- C. is without a job.
- D. experiences remorse.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the husband's history of being abused as a child increases his risk of becoming a perpetrator of physical abuse. Research shows that individuals who have been abused are more likely to perpetrate abuse themselves. This is due to a cycle of violence where behaviors learned in childhood are repeated in adulthood. In this case, the husband's abusive behavior towards his wife mirrors his own upbringing where his father abused his mother. This pattern suggests that the husband may continue the cycle of abuse.
Choice A (is unable to make lasting behavioral changes) is incorrect because it does not directly correlate with the risk of becoming a perpetrator of physical abuse. Choice C (is without a job) is also incorrect as employment status does not necessarily indicate a propensity for abuse. Choice D (experiences remorse) is incorrect as feeling remorse after abusive incidents does not negate the risk of becoming a perpetrator of physical abuse.
In the elderly, administering medication is a great concern for the nurse since these patients are more prone to side effects. The primary cause of this is:
- A. Altered circulation and renal function
- B. Accelerated gastrointestinal system
- C. Enlarged Lymph nodes
- D. Musculoskeletal system weakness
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The elderly are more likely to have side effects when there is altered metabolism through the kidneys and liver as well as altered circulatory function (A), unlike the other options (B, C, D) which are less relevant.