Nokea
Which of the following is the most frequent cause of diarrhea and flatulance:
- A. Acarbose
- B. Glibenclamide
- C. Metformin
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Acarbose inhibits carbohydrate digestion in the gut, leading to increased fermentation by gut bacteria, causing diarrhea and flatulence.
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A 70-year-old patient has just received a drug, which can cause sedation. What would be the priority nursing diagnosis for this patient?
- A. Noncompliance: Cost of the drug
- B. Deficient knowledge: Unfamiliar with drug therapy
- C. Risk for injury: Related to adverse effects of the drug
- D. Ineffective health maintenance: Need for medication
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Sedation increases the risk of falls or injury, making 'Risk for injury' the priority nursing diagnosis for a 70-year-old patient, given age-related vulnerabilities.
Which of the following regarding E max is correct?
- A. E max assumes that as long as you increase the concentration of the drug, there will be a higher effect of the drug
- B. E max is used to compare the potency of different drugs
- C. E max assumes that all receptors are occupied by the drug and no increase in response is observed if a higher concentration of drug is obtained
- D. All of the previous points are incorrect
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Emax is the maximal effect when all receptors are occupied; further dose increases yield no additional effect.
Patients prescribed aspirin therapy require education regarding the signs of aspirin toxicity. An early sign of aspirin toxicity is:
- A. Black tarry stools
- B. Vomiting
- C. Tremors
- D. Tinnitus
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Tinnitus is an early aspirin toxicity sign; black stools or vomiting are later.
Which of the following adverse effects are less likely in a beta1-selective blocker?
- A. Dysrhythmias
- B. Impaired insulin release
- C. Reflex orthostatic changes
- D. Decreased triglycerides and cholesterol
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Beta1-selective blockers (e.g., atenolol) have less impact on insulin release compared to non-selective blockers.
A patient requires 1,000 mL of IV fluid to be infused over 10 hours with a drop factor of 20 gtt/mL. What is the flow rate in drops per minute?
- A. 33 gtt/min
- B. 50 gtt/min
- C. 67 gtt/min
- D. 100 gtt/min
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Flow rate = (Volume Drop factor) ÷ Time in minutes = (1,000 mL 20 gtt/mL) ÷ (10 60) = 20,000 ÷ 600 = 33.33 gtt/min, rounded to 33 gtt/min.