Nokea
Which of the following methods of contraception is able to reduce the transmission of HIV and other STDs?
- A. intrauterine device (IUD)
- B. Norplant
- C. oral contraceptives
- D. vaginal sponge
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is the vaginal sponge. The vaginal sponge, when used with foam or jelly contraception, acts as a barrier method that can reduce the transmission of HIV and other STDs, in addition to preventing pregnancy. In contrast, IUDs, Norplant, and oral contraceptives are effective in preventing pregnancy but do not provide protection against the transmission of HIV and STDs. IUDs prevent pregnancy by affecting sperm movement and survival, Norplant releases hormones to prevent ovulation, and oral contraceptives work by inhibiting ovulation. However, these methods do not create a physical barrier against HIV and STD transmission. It is important to counsel clients using methods like IUDs, Norplant, and oral contraceptives to also use chemical or barrier contraceptives to lower the risk of HIV or STD transmission.
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The goals of palliative care include all of the following except:
- A. giving clients with life-threatening illnesses the best quality of life possible
- B. taking care of the whole person"?body, mind, spirit, heart, and soul
- C. no interventions are needed because the client is near death
- D. supporting the needs of the family and client
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The goals of palliative care include choices A, B, and D. Choice C, 'no interventions are needed because the client is near death,' is not part of palliative care. Palliative care involves giving clients with life-threatening illnesses the best quality of life possible, taking care of the whole person"?body, mind, spirit, heart, and soul, and supporting the needs of the family and client. Interventions are crucial in palliative care to ensure the comfort and well-being of the client until the end of life. Therefore, the correct answer is that no interventions are needed because the client is near death.
When a client who is 25 years of age asks the nurse when she should seek fertility counseling, the best response by the nurse is:
- A. "Fertility counseling should be sought when you have been unable to conceive after 1 year of unprotected intercourse."?
- B. "Fertility counseling should be sought when you have not been able to conceive after 6-9 months of unprotected intercourse."?
- C. "The average time it takes someone your age to conceive is 5.3 months, so if you haven't conceived by then, we can refer you."?
- D. "We can give you some guidance now on how to increase your chances of conceiving and then refer you if it doesn't happen within a year."?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The best response in this scenario is to offer immediate guidance while also indicating when fertility counseling should be sought. While Choice A is technically correct as guidelines recommend seeking fertility counseling after 1 year of unprotected intercourse, it lacks providing immediate guidance. Choice B suggests seeking counseling after 6-9 months, which is earlier than the standard recommendation of 1 year. Choice C mentions the average time to conceive for someone of the client's age without addressing the client's current concern. Therefore, Choice D is the most appropriate response as it offers immediate guidance along with a plan for referral if needed.
A client turns her ankle. She is diagnosed as having a Pulled Ligament. This should be documented as a:
- A. sprain.
- B. strain.
- C. subluxation.
- D. dislocation.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The term 'strain' is the correct choice. A strain refers to the excessive stretching of a muscle or tendon, which aligns with a pulled ligament diagnosis. A sprain, on the other hand, involves ligament injury due to twisting motions. 'Subluxation' indicates a partial dislocation of a joint, not a pulled ligament. 'Dislocation' refers to the complete displacement of bones in a joint, which is not the appropriate term for a pulled ligament.
The client has been on vancomycin for three days. Which of the following symptoms is least concerning?
- A. nausea
- B. headache
- C. vertigo
- D. tinnitus
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'headache.' While vancomycin can cause ototoxicity leading to symptoms like tinnitus, vertigo, and nausea, headaches are not typically associated with vancomycin use. Therefore, headache is the least concerning symptom in this scenario. Nausea, vertigo, and tinnitus are more likely to be related to vancomycin ototoxicity and should be closely monitored and reported. Headache is a common symptom that may not be directly linked to vancomycin use.
Which of the following values should be monitored closely while a client is on total parenteral nutrition?
- A. calcium
- B. magnesium
- C. glucose
- D. cholesterol
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Glucose is the correct value to monitor closely while a client is on total parenteral nutrition. Total parenteral nutrition solutions have high glucose concentrations, necessitating monitoring to prevent complications like hyperglycemia. Calcium, magnesium, and cholesterol are not typically closely monitored during total parenteral nutrition as they are not directly related to the solution's composition or potential associated complications.