Nokea
Which of the following patients is at the greatest risk of developing acute kidney injury? A patient who
- A. has been on aminoglycosides for the past 6 days
- B. has a history of controlled hypertension with a blood pressure of 138/88 mm Hg
- C. was discharged 2 weeks earlier after aminoglycoside therapy of 2 weeks
- D. has a history of fluid overload as a result of heart failure
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the patient was recently discharged after a prolonged course of aminoglycoside therapy, which is a known risk factor for acute kidney injury due to its nephrotoxic effects. Choice A is incorrect because although aminoglycosides can cause kidney injury, the duration of therapy is shorter in this case. Choice B is incorrect because controlled hypertension is not a significant risk factor for acute kidney injury. Choice D is incorrect because fluid overload from heart failure may lead to other complications but is not directly associated with acute kidney injury.
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The most common cause of acute kidney injury in critically ill patients is
- A. sepsis.
- B. fluid overload.
- C. medications.
- D. hemodynamic instability.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: sepsis. Sepsis is a leading cause of acute kidney injury in critically ill patients due to the systemic inflammatory response leading to kidney damage. Fluid overload (B) can contribute but is not the primary cause. Medications (C) and hemodynamic instability (D) can also lead to acute kidney injury but are not as common as sepsis in critically ill patients.
The patient is diagnosed with acute kidney injury and has been getting dialysis 3 days per week. The patient complains of general malaise and is tachypneic. An arterial blood gas shows that the patient’s pH is 19, with a PCO of 30 mm Hg and a bicarbonate level of 13 mEq/L. The nurse prepares to
- A. administer morphine to slow the respiratory rate.
- B. prepare for intubation and mechanical ventilation.
- C. administer intravenous sodium bicarbonate.
- D. cancel tomorrow’s dialysis session.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: prepare for intubation and mechanical ventilation. The patient's arterial blood gas results indicate metabolic acidosis (low pH, low bicarbonate) with respiratory compensation (low PCO). In this scenario, the patient is likely experiencing respiratory fatigue due to tachypnea from metabolic acidosis. Intubation and mechanical ventilation are needed to support the patient's respiratory effort and correct the acid-base imbalance. Administering morphine (choice A) can further depress the respiratory drive. Administering intravenous sodium bicarbonate (choice C) can temporarily correct the pH but does not address the underlying respiratory distress. Canceling dialysis (choice D) is not indicated as it does not address the acute respiratory compromise.
The nurse is caring for a patient with a diagnosis of head trauma. The nurse notes that the patient’s urine output has increased tremendously over the past 18 hours. The nurse suspects that the patient may be developing
- A. diabetes insipidus.
- B. diabetic ketoacidosis.
- C. hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome.
- D. syndrome of inappropriate secretion of antidiuretic hormone.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: A patient with head trauma may develop diabetes insipidus due to damage to the hypothalamus or pituitary gland, leading to decreased secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). This results in excessive urine output and thirst. Other options are incorrect because:
B: Diabetic ketoacidosis is associated with high blood sugar and ketones, not increased urine output.
C: Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome is characterized by extreme hyperglycemia, not increased urine output.
D: Syndrome of inappropriate secretion of antidiuretic hormone results in decreased urine output due to excess ADH.
The patient is complaining of severe flank pain when he tries to urinate. His urinalysis shows sediment and crystals along with a few bacteria. Using this information along with the clinical picture, the nurse realizes that the patient’s condition is
- A. prerenal.
- B. postrenal.
- C. intrarenal.
- D. not renal related.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: intrarenal. The presence of sediment, crystals, and bacteria in the urinalysis indicates an issue within the kidneys themselves. The flank pain suggests renal involvement. Prerenal would involve issues before the kidneys, such as inadequate blood flow. Postrenal would involve issues after the kidneys, such as urinary tract obstruction. Not renal related is incorrect as the symptoms and urinalysis findings clearly point to a renal issue.
Continuous renal replacement therapy (CRRT) differs from conventional intermittent hemodialysis in that
- A. a hemofilter is used to facilitate ultrafiltration.
- B. it provides faster removal of solute and water.
- C. it does not allow diffusion to occur.
- D. the process removes solutes and water slowly.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale:
1. CRRT removes solutes and water slowly to avoid hemodynamic instability.
2. Slow removal better tolerates fluid and electrolyte shifts in critically ill patients.
3. Unlike intermittent hemodialysis, CRRT provides continuous, gentle therapy.
4. Choice A is incorrect as both CRRT and intermittent hemodialysis use a hemofilter.
5. Choice B is incorrect as CRRT does not provide faster solute and water removal.
6. Choice C is incorrect as CRRT allows for diffusion to occur, albeit at a slower rate.
Summary:
Continuous renal replacement therapy (CRRT) removes solutes and water slowly to prevent hemodynamic instability, making it a gentler and more continuous process compared to intermittent hemodialysis. The other choices are incorrect as CRRT does use a hemofilter, does not provide faster removal, and still allows for diffusion to occur.