Nokea
Which of the four phases of pain transmission is characterized by the peripheral nerve fibers forming synapses with neurons in the spinal cord and the pain impulses moving away from the spinal cord to the reticular activating system, the limbic system, the thalamus, and finally the cerebral cortex?
- A. Modulation
- B. Transduction
- C. Transmission
- D. Perception
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because during the transmission phase, pain signals are relayed from the spinal cord to various parts of the brain for processing.
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A client is being treated for inhalational anthrax following bioterrorism exposure. Which of the following medications should NOT be expected as a common treatment for anthrax?
- A. Ciprofloxacin
- B. Doxycycline
- C. Amoxicillin
- D. Penicillin G
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Penicillin G. Anthrax is caused by Bacillus anthracis, which is susceptible to ciprofloxacin and doxycycline. Penicillin and amoxicillin are not recommended due to the potential for B. anthracis to produce beta-lactamase, which can make the bacteria resistant to penicillin-based medications. Penicillin G is not effective in treating anthrax and should not be expected as a common treatment option.
A client complaining of severe shortness of breath is diagnosed with congestive heart failure. The nurse observes a falling pulse oximetry. The client's color changes to gray and she expectorates large amounts of pink frothy sputum. The first action of the nurse would be which of the following?
- A. Call the health care provider.
- B. Check vital signs.
- C. Position in high Fowler's.
- D. Administer oxygen.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Oxygen administration is immediate to address hypoxemia.
Why should the nurse closely monitor a client to ensure that the venous access device remains in the vein during a transfusion?
- A. It minimizes the risk of phlebitis.
- B. It minimizes the risk of pulmonary embolism.
- C. It minimizes the risk of circulatory overload.
- D. It minimizes the risk of localized edema.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because dislodged catheters can lead to emboli formation.
A 56-year-old patient comes to the walk-in clinic for scant rectal bleeding and intermittent diarrhea and constipation for the past several months. There is a history of polyps and a family history for colorectal cancer. While you are trying to teach about colonoscopy, the patient becomes angry and threatens to leave. What is the priority diagnosis?
- A. Diarrhea/Constipation related to altered bowel patterns.
- B. Knowledge Deficit related to disease process and diagnostic procedure.
- C. Risk for Fluid Volume Deficit related to rectal bleeding and diarrhea.
- D. Anxiety related to unknown outcomes and perceived threats to body integrity.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The patient's anger and threat to leave indicate significant anxiety, which must be addressed before proceeding with education or further assessment.
Describe the relationship between receptors and neurotransmitters.
- A. Increased alertness
- B. Lower immune response
- C. Faster metabolism
- D. Enhanced digestion
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because it is the most appropriate response based on physiological and medical principles.