Which of the tractions is used to treat fractures of the humerus?
- A. Bryant's traction
- B. Overhead suspension traction
- C. Thomas splint traction
- D. 90-90 traction
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Humerus fractures require specific traction. Bryant's traction (choice A) treats femoral fractures in children. Overhead suspension traction (choice B) stabilizes humeral fractures, aligning via arm suspension. Thomas splint (choice C) is for femur fractures. 90-90 traction (choice D) suits femoral shaft issues. B is correct, standard for humerus. Nurses apply it, check alignment, and prevent skin breakdown, aiding healing.
You may also like to solve these questions
A 5-month-old infant is admitted to the ER with a temperature of 103.6°F and irritability. The mother states that the child has been listless for the past several hours and that he had a seizure on the way to the hospital. A lumbar puncture confirms a diagnosis of bacterial meningitis. The nurse should assess the infant for:
- A. Periorbital edema
- B. Tenseness of the anterior fontanel
- C. Positive Babinski reflex
- D. Negative scarf sign
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Tenseness of the anterior fontanel is a key sign of bacterial meningitis in a 5-month-old, indicating increased intracranial pressure from infection, alongside fever, irritability, and seizures. Periorbital edema isn't typical, a positive Babinski is normal at this age, and a negative scarf sign relates to tone, not pressure. Nurses assess this bulging fontanel urgently, as it signals worsening inflammation, guiding immediate antibiotic and supportive care to prevent brain damage or death in this critical condition.
Mr. Gary is a 67 year old client who is experiencing chronic pain. Which of the following is the best way to assess his pain?
- A. Observe his behavior
- B. Ask him to describe his pain
- C. Perform physical assessment
- D. Use a standardized pain scale
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: For Mr. Gary's chronic pain at 67, a standardized pain scale (D) best assesses intensity, per pain management standards (e.g., numeric scale). Observation (A) misses subjectivity, description (B) lacks precision, physical assessment (C) is secondary. Scales quantify chronic pain reliably, especially in older adults, making D the optimal choice.
A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a subcutaneous injection of insulin. Which of the following actions should the professional take?
- A. Use a 1-inch needle.
- B. Insert the needle at a 90-degree angle.
- C. Use a tuberculin syringe.
- D. Aspirate before injecting.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When administering a subcutaneous injection, inserting the needle at a 90-degree angle is appropriate. This angle helps ensure proper delivery of the medication into the subcutaneous tissue. Using a 1-inch needle is common for subcutaneous injections to reach the subcutaneous fat layer adequately. Tuberculin syringes are typically used for intradermal injections, not subcutaneous injections. Aspirating before injecting is not necessary for subcutaneous injections as it is primarily used for intramuscular injections to ensure the needle is not in a blood vessel.
A client with peptic ulcer disease is being taught about dietary management. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should avoid drinking milk.
- B. I should avoid drinking coffee.
- C. I should avoid eating high-fiber foods.
- D. I should avoid eating low-fat foods.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Avoiding coffee is important in managing peptic ulcer disease as it helps reduce acid production and alleviate symptoms. Coffee is known to stimulate acid secretion in the stomach, which can exacerbate ulcer symptoms. Therefore, instructing the client to avoid drinking coffee is essential in the dietary management of peptic ulcer disease. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Drinking milk is generally allowed and can even provide a protective effect against ulcers. High-fiber foods are beneficial for digestion and do not need to be avoided unless they cause discomfort. Low-fat foods are also typically recommended for individuals with peptic ulcer disease as they are easier on the digestive system.
Culture media is sterilized by which of the following method?
- A. Autoclaving
- B. Boiling
- C. Hot air oven
- D. Ionizing radiation
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Sterilization of culture media is critical in microbiology to eliminate contaminants. Autoclaving (choice A) uses moist heat under pressure (typically 121°C at 15 psi for 15-20 minutes) to kill bacteria, spores, and viruses, making it the gold standard for sterilizing liquid media like agar or broth. Boiling (choice B) at 100°C can kill vegetative bacteria but not heat-resistant spores, rendering it inadequate for complete sterilization. Hot air oven (choice C) employs dry heat (160-170°C for 2 hours) and is suitable for glassware, not liquid media, as it may evaporate or degrade nutrients. Ionizing radiation (choice D) is effective for heat-sensitive materials (e.g., plastics), but it's less common for routine media preparation due to cost and equipment needs. Autoclaving is the correct answer (A) because it ensures thorough sterilization of culture media, a process nurses and lab personnel rely on to maintain aseptic conditions for accurate diagnostic cultures.