Nokea
Which of these cranial nerves contains preganglionic parasympathetic fibers?
- A. optic, CN II
- B. facial, CN VII
- C. trigeminal, CN V
- D. hypoglossal, CN XII
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: facial nerve, CN VII. The facial nerve contains preganglionic parasympathetic fibers that innervate the lacrimal, submandibular, and sublingual glands. These fibers originate from the superior salivatory nucleus in the pons. Option A (optic nerve) is involved in vision and not related to parasympathetic function. Option C (trigeminal nerve) is primarily involved in sensory innervation of the face and motor function of the muscles of mastication. Option D (hypoglossal nerve) is responsible for motor control of the tongue and is not associated with parasympathetic fibers.
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A client with multiple sclerosis is prescribed diazepam (Valium). What assessment finding indicates that the medication is effective for the client?
- A. Muscle spasticity is reduced
- B. Blood glucose level is within normal limits
- C. The client states that muscles are weak
- D. Ophthalmologic examination shows no evidence of cataracts
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Diazepam is a muscle relaxant used to reduce spasticity in MS. Its effectiveness is measured by the reduction in muscle stiffness and spasms.
During the patient's process of grieving for the losses resulting from spinal cord injury, what should the nurse do?
- A. Help the patient to understand that working through the grief will be a lifelong process
- B. Assist the patient to move through all stages of the mourning process to acceptance
- C. Let the patient know that anger directed at the staff or the family is not a positive coping mechanism
- D. Facilitate the grieving process so that it is completed by the time the patient is discharged from rehabilitation
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Grieving is a long-term process requiring ongoing support.
What is a disadvantage of open reduction and internal fixation of a fracture compared to closed reduction?
- A. Infection
- B. Skin irritation
- C. Nerve impairment
- D. Complications of immobility
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Open reduction involves surgery, which increases the risk of infection.
What is a normal finding when assessing a patient's deep tendon reflexes?
- A. An involuntary contraction of the muscle being tested.
- B. Absence of any reflexive response.
- C. Decreased or diminished reflexes.
- D. Hyperactive reflexes with clonus.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Normal deep tendon reflexes involve an involuntary muscle contraction in response to stimulation. Absence, diminished reflexes, or hyperactive reflexes with clonus are abnormal findings.
The nurse practitioner is reviewing the chart of a patient who is scheduled to receive their first dose of sumatriptan (Imitrex) in the clinic today. Past medical history is positive for only migraines. Which of the following requires further evaluation before the medication is administered?
- A. Recent naproxen (Naprosyn) use
- B. Current blood pressure 142/90 mmHg
- C. Resting pulse rate of 61 bpm
- D. Adverse reaction to ubrogepant (Ubrelvy)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Current blood pressure 142/90 mmHg. Before administering sumatriptan, the nurse practitioner should further evaluate the patient's elevated blood pressure to ensure it is not contraindicated for the medication. Sumatriptan can potentially increase blood pressure, so it is crucial to monitor and address any hypertension before giving the medication.
Choice A: Recent naproxen use is not a direct contraindication for sumatriptan. Both medications are commonly used together for migraine treatment.
Choice C: A resting pulse rate of 61 bpm is within the normal range and does not require further evaluation before administering sumatriptan.
Choice D: Adverse reaction to ubrogepant is not relevant for evaluating the safety of sumatriptan. Each medication has its own set of potential side effects and interactions.