Quizlet on Reproductive System

Quizlet on Reproductive System Related

Review Quizlet on Reproductive System related questions and content

Which patient does the nurse recognize as having the highest risk for ovarian cancer?

  • A. A 24-year-old nulliparous woman who has a history of multiple sexual partners
  • B. A 32-year-old woman who has had six live births and a history of human papilloma virus (HPV) infection
  • C. A 55-year-old woman who reached menarche at age 12 and menopause at age 54
  • D. A 64-year-old nulliparous woman who has taken hormone replacement therapy for 8 years
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because the patient is a 64-year-old nulliparous woman who has taken hormone replacement therapy for 8 years. Nulliparity (never giving birth) and prolonged use of hormone replacement therapy are both risk factors for ovarian cancer. Age is also a significant risk factor for ovarian cancer, with the highest incidence in women over 60.

Choice A is incorrect because although having multiple sexual partners may increase the risk of certain sexually transmitted infections, it is not a direct risk factor for ovarian cancer.

Choice B is incorrect because while HPV infection is associated with cervical cancer, it is not a known risk factor for ovarian cancer.

Choice C is incorrect because the age of menarche and menopause are not directly linked to an increased risk of ovarian cancer.

In summary, the correct answer, D, combines the highest risk factors for ovarian cancer, which are nulliparity, prolonged hormone replacement therapy, and older age.

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Which of the following statements relating to lactation is incorrect.

  • A. plasma prolactin releasing factor stimulates the release of prolactin from the anterior pituitary.
  • B. mechanical stimulation and neural inputs stimulate the anterior pituitary to secrete prolactin releasing factor and oxytocin.
  • C. plasma oxytocin stimulates the contraction of breast glands causing milk ejection.
  • D. progesterone helps prepare the mammary glands for lactation
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because mechanical stimulation and neural inputs do not directly stimulate the anterior pituitary to secrete prolactin releasing factor and oxytocin. The release of prolactin is primarily controlled by the hypothalamus through the release of prolactin inhibitory hormone (dopamine) and prolactin releasing hormone. Oxytocin release is controlled by the hypothalamus in response to suckling. Choices A, C, and D are all correct statements about lactation. Plasma prolactin releasing factor (prolactin releasing hormone) does stimulate the release of prolactin, plasma oxytocin does stimulate milk ejection, and progesterone does prepare the mammary glands for lactation.

The ovule forms in:

  • A. the medullar area of the ovary;
  • B. the mature ovarian follicle;
  • C. the Fallopian tube;
  • D. the uterus;
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: the mature ovarian follicle.
1. Ovule formation occurs within the ovary, specifically within a structure called the ovarian follicle.
2. The mature ovarian follicle contains the ovum (oocyte) which develops into the ovule.
3. The ovule is released during ovulation from the mature ovarian follicle.
In contrast, the other choices are incorrect:
A: The medullar area of the ovary does not play a direct role in ovule formation.
C: The Fallopian tube is where fertilization typically occurs, not ovule formation.
D: The uterus is not involved in ovule formation; it is the site of embryo implantation during pregnancy.

When do progesterone levels rise to their highest point during the female hormonal cycle?

  • A. Between ovulation and the beginning of menstruation
  • B. Immediately before ovulation
  • C. When the blood concentration of luteinizing hormone is at its highest point
  • D. When 12 primary follicles are developing to the antral stage
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Progesterone levels rise to their highest point between ovulation and the beginning of menstruation because this is the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle when the corpus luteum (formed from the ruptured follicle after ovulation) secretes progesterone. This hormone prepares the endometrium for implantation and maintains a potential pregnancy.

Explanation for other choices:
- B: Immediately before ovulation, estrogen levels are high, not progesterone.
- C: Luteinizing hormone surge triggers ovulation, not directly related to progesterone rise.
- D: The development of primary follicles is associated with estrogen, not progesterone.

Which of the following nursing interventions are required for a client undergoing antibiotic treatment for epididymitis and orchitis?

  • A. Use an alcohol rub to keep the scrotum dry.
  • B. Apply a skin cream.
  • C. Elevate the scrotum to relieve the pain.
  • D. Limit alcohol intake to 2 drinks per week.
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Elevating the scrotum helps alleviate pain and swelling.

The nurse documents which finding as expected on inspection of the anus?

  • A. Skin tone darker and coarser than that of the surrounding skin
  • B. Sphincter lightly closed when the patient is relaxed
  • C. Large amount of stiff, curling hair surrounding the anus
  • D. Slight protrusion under the skin when the patient strains or bears down
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because the normal skin tone of the anus is typically slightly darker and coarser than the surrounding skin due to increased melanin concentration. This is a result of the natural pigmentation of the area.

Choice B is incorrect because the sphincter should be relaxed during inspection, not lightly closed. Choice C is incorrect as a large amount of stiff, curling hair surrounding the anus is not an expected finding. Choice D is incorrect as a slight protrusion under the skin when the patient strains or bears down could indicate hemorrhoids, which are not considered normal.

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