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Which should the nurse teach the client regarding Breast Health Awareness (BHA) according to the American Cancer Society (ACS). Select all that apply.
- A. Women at high risk should talk to the HCP about when to have a mammogram.
- B. Beginning at age 45, to have a yearly mammogram.
- C. To perform a breast self-examination (BSE) bimonthly.
- D. To get a sonogram of the breasts semiannually.
- E. To have Magnetic Resonance Imaging of the breasts every five (5) years.
Correct Answer: A,B
Rationale: ACS recommends high-risk women discuss mammogram timing with HCP and yearly mammograms from age 45. Bimonthly BSE, semiannual sonograms, and MRI every 5 years are not standard.
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Which recommendation is the American Cancer Society's (ACS) 2015 guideline for the early detection of breast cancer?
- A. Beginning at age 18, have a biannual clinical breast examination by an HCP.
- B. Beginning at age 30, perform monthly breast self-exams.
- C. At age 45 through 54, receive a yearly mammogram.
- D. Beginning at age 50, have a breast sonogram every five (5) years.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: ACS 2015 guidelines recommend annual mammograms for women aged 45–54. Biannual clinical exams at 18, monthly BSEs, and routine sonograms are not part of these guidelines.
If the client is typical of others with gonorrhea, which statements made by the client will help to make the diagnosis? Select all that apply.
- A. I have burning when I urinate.
- B. I have a yellow drainage from my penis.
- C. I had sexual intercourse 5 days ago.
- D. I have a painless ulceration on my penis.
- E. I have little blisters on my penis and scrotum.
- F. I have extra skin growing around my penis.
Correct Answer: A,B
Rationale: Burning on urination and yellow penile discharge are hallmark symptoms of gonorrhea, supporting the diagnosis.
The client has had an exploratory laparotomy to remove an ovarian tumor. The pathology report classifies the tumor as a 'low malignancy potential' (LMP) tumor. Which statement explains the scientific rationale for this pathology report?
- A. The client does not have cancer but will need adjuvant therapy.
- B. The client would have developed cancer if the tumor had not been removed.
- C. These borderline tumors resemble ovarian cancer but have better outcomes.
- D. The client has a very poor prognosis and has less than six (6) months to live.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: LMP tumors (borderline ovarian tumors) have malignant features but lower metastatic potential, with better prognosis than invasive ovarian cancer. They are cancerous, not precancerous, and do not inherently require adjuvant therapy or indicate poor prognosis.
The nurse writes a problem of 'potential for complications related to ovarian hyperstimulation' for a client who is taking clomiphene (Clomid), an ovarian stimulant. Which intervention should be included in the plan of care?
- A. Instruct the client to delay intercourse until menses.
- B. Schedule the client for frequent pelvic sonograms.
- C. Explain the infusion therapy will take 21 days.
- D. Discuss that this may cause an ectopic pregnancy.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Frequent pelvic sonograms monitor for ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS), a clomiphene risk. Delaying intercourse, infusion therapy, and ectopic pregnancy are unrelated.
The nurse writes a client problem of urinary retention for a client diagnosed with Stage IV cancer of the prostate. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Catheterize the client to determine the amount of residual.
- B. Encourage the client to assume a normal position for urinating.
- C. Teach the client to use the Valsalva maneuver to empty the bladder.
- D. Determine the client’s normal voiding pattern.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Catheterization assesses residual urine, confirming retention and guiding treatment in advanced prostate cancer. Positioning, Valsalva, and voiding patterns are secondary.