Nokea
Which statement by the client indicates further teaching is needed about uterine cancer?
- A. A Pap test is used to diagnose uterine cancer.
- B. Uterine cancer is the most common cancer of the reproductive tract.
- C. I used estrogen for 2 years without progesterone. This puts me at risk for developing uterine cancer.
- D. Postmenopausal bleeding could indicate uterine cancer.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because a Pap test is used to detect cervical cancer, not uterine cancer.
1. A Pap test screens for cervical cancer by detecting abnormal cells in the cervix.
2. Uterine cancer is the most common cancer of the reproductive tract, making choice B accurate.
3. Choice C is correct as using estrogen without progesterone can increase uterine cancer risk.
4. Choice D is also accurate as postmenopausal bleeding can be a symptom of uterine cancer.
In summary, the need for further teaching arises from the misconception that a Pap test can diagnose uterine cancer.
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The pregnant woman who becomes infected with chickenpox should be taught to report promptly:
- A. Cough or dyspnea
- B. Severe skin itching
- C. Joint pain
- D. Increased urination
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cough or dyspnea. Chickenpox can lead to pneumonia in pregnant women, causing cough or dyspnea. Prompt reporting is crucial for timely intervention. B: Severe itching is common in chickenpox but not a critical symptom. C: Joint pain is not a typical complication of chickenpox. D: Increased urination is not directly related to chickenpox complications during pregnancy. It's important for the pregnant woman to be aware of respiratory symptoms as they can indicate a serious complication that requires immediate medical attention.
A 20-year-old college student expresses concern over the recent appearance of genital warts, an assessment finding her primary care provider confirms as attributable to HPV infection. Which client education should be included?
- A. It's important to start treatment as soon as possible, so you will receive a prescription for pills today.
- B. There is a chance that the genital warts will clear up on their own without any treatment.
- C. I recommend receiving an HPV vaccination today.
- D. Unfortunately, this is going to greatly increase your chance of developing pelvic inflammatory disease.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: There is a chance that the genital warts will clear up on their own without any treatment.
Rationale:
1. Genital warts caused by HPV can sometimes resolve spontaneously without treatment.
2. This option emphasizes the possibility of self-resolution, which is a common occurrence.
3. Encouraging observation without immediate treatment aligns with current guidelines for managing HPV-related genital warts.
4. Avoiding unnecessary treatment helps prevent potential side effects and reduces healthcare costs.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
A: Incorrect because immediate treatment is not always necessary for genital warts caused by HPV.
C: Incorrect because HPV vaccination does not treat existing HPV infections, including genital warts.
D: Incorrect because developing pelvic inflammatory disease is not directly related to the presence of genital warts caused by HPV.
The correct injection technique for infants of mothers who are known carriers of hepatitis B virus is to:
- A. Avoid all intramuscular injections until 1 month of age
- B. Dilute intramuscular injections with added normal saline
- C. Mix all injections that the infant will need in a single syringe
- D. Bathe the area where the infant will receive injections
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because infants born to mothers who are known carriers of hepatitis B virus should receive the hepatitis B vaccine within 12 hours of birth. Delaying intramuscular injections until 1 month of age increases the risk of vertical transmission of the virus. Choice B is incorrect because diluting injections with normal saline is unnecessary and may compromise the effectiveness of the vaccine. Choice C is incorrect as mixing all injections in a single syringe can lead to contamination and inaccurate dosing. Choice D is incorrect as bathing the injection site does not prevent vertical transmission of the virus.
A 60-year-old client with a palpable mass to the right adnexa and family history of ovarian cancer is seen by the HCP. The nurse anticipates the order for which of the following laboratory results?
- A. CBC
- B. Blood glucose
- C. CA-125
- D. FSH and LH
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: CA-125. This tumor marker is used to assess for ovarian cancer in high-risk individuals. The client's age, palpable mass, and family history of ovarian cancer raise suspicion for malignancy. A CBC (choice A) and blood glucose (choice B) are not specific to ovarian cancer evaluation. FSH and LH (choice D) are hormone levels that do not directly assess for ovarian cancer. Therefore, CA-125 is the most appropriate lab test to anticipate in this scenario.
During the physical assessment of a female client with HPV, which should the nurse expect to find?
- A. Purulent vaginal discharge
- B. Condylomata
- C. Malodorous vaginal discharge
- D. No clinical manifestation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Condylomata. HPV can manifest as genital warts or condylomata acuminata. These are flesh-colored growths that appear on the genital area. The presence of condylomata indicates an active HPV infection. Choices A and C are incorrect as purulent or malodorous discharge is not typically associated with HPV. Choice D is incorrect as HPV often presents with visible symptoms like condylomata.