Nokea
Which surgical procedure involves removing a portion of the lung?
- A. Lobectomy
- B. Pneumonectomy
- C. Tracheostomy
- D. Bronchoscopy
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Lobectomy. A lobectomy involves the removal of a lobe of the lung. This procedure is commonly done to treat lung cancer or other conditions affecting a specific lobe. Pneumonectomy (B) involves the removal of an entire lung, not just a portion. Tracheostomy (C) is the surgical creation of an opening in the windpipe to help with breathing, not a lung removal procedure. Bronchoscopy (D) is a diagnostic procedure to visualize the airways using a flexible tube with a camera, not a lung removal surgery. Therefore, A is the correct choice for removing a portion of the lung.
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The client asks about side effects of taking digoxin. How does the nurse respond?
- A. Anorexia can be a side effect of digoxin.
- B. Tachycardia can be a side effect of digoxin.
- C. Constipation can be a side effect of digoxin.
- D. Urinary retention can be a side effect of digoxin.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Anorexia can be a side effect of digoxin. Digoxin is known to cause anorexia due to its impact on the gastrointestinal system. It can lead to nausea, vomiting, and loss of appetite, resulting in anorexia. Tachycardia (choice B) is not a common side effect of digoxin, as it is actually used to treat certain types of arrhythmias. Constipation (choice C) and urinary retention (choice D) are also not typically associated with digoxin use. In summary, anorexia is a known side effect of digoxin, while tachycardia, constipation, and urinary retention are not commonly linked to this medication.
The nurse is caring for a client on enalapril (Vasotec). What is the most important side effect to monitor?
- A. Cough
- B. Hyperkalemia
- C. Hypotension
- D. Dizziness
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cough. Enalapril is an ACE inhibitor that can cause a dry, persistent cough as a common side effect. It is important to monitor for this because it can indicate a potentially serious adverse reaction called angioedema. Hyperkalemia (B) is a possible side effect of enalapril but is typically not as urgent to monitor as cough. Hypotension (C) is a common side effect but is usually monitored during the initial dose titration. Dizziness (D) is a less common side effect and is often transient. Monitoring for cough is crucial to detect and manage any potential angioedema promptly.
The client is on warfarin and has an INR of 1.5. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Increase the dose of warfarin.
- B. Hold the next dose of warfarin.
- C. Continue the current dose of warfarin.
- D. Monitor the client's INR closely.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hold the next dose of warfarin. With an INR of 1.5, the client's blood is not adequately anticoagulated, increasing the risk of blood clots. Holding the next dose will prevent further thinning of blood and allow the INR to increase to the target range. Increasing the dose (A) could lead to over-anticoagulation, risking bleeding. Continuing the current dose (C) maintains inadequate anticoagulation. Monitoring (D) is important, but the immediate action should be to hold the next dose.
Which type of lung cancer is strongly associated with exposure to asbestos?
- A. Mesothelioma
- B. Adenocarcinoma
- C. Squamous cell carcinoma
- D. Small cell lung cancer
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Mesothelioma. Mesothelioma is a type of cancer that affects the lining of the lungs, abdomen, or heart, and is primarily caused by exposure to asbestos fibers. Asbestos exposure is a well-established risk factor for developing mesothelioma. Adenocarcinoma, squamous cell carcinoma, and small cell lung cancer are not typically associated with asbestos exposure. This association is key in determining the correct answer.
What is the term that describes the inability of cardiac cells to respond to a new stimulus while they are still in contraction from a previous stimulus?
- A. Refractoriness
- B. Excitability
- C. Contractility
- D. Automaticity
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Refractoriness. Refractoriness refers to the period during which cardiac cells are unable to respond to a new stimulus while still contracting from a previous stimulus. This is essential for preventing premature re-stimulation and ensuring proper cardiac function.
B: Excitability refers to the ability of cardiac cells to respond to a stimulus, which is the opposite of what is described in the question.
C: Contractility is the ability of cardiac cells to contract in response to an electrical stimulus, not related to the inability to respond to a new stimulus during contraction.
D: Automaticity is the ability of cardiac cells to spontaneously generate electrical impulses, unrelated to the inability to respond to a new stimulus during contraction.