Which type of sexually transmitted disease is the nurse most accurate to highlight in the client's history as it remains dormant in the body and can reoccur at any time?
- A. Chlamydia
- B. Herpes infection
- C. Gonorrhea
- D. Syphilis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The nurse is most accurate to highlight the herpes infection as the virus can remain dormant in the ganglia of the nerves. Symptoms are usually more severe with the initial outbreak. Subsequent episodes are usually shorter and less intense. The other infections are important to note in the history.
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A client with a history of HSV-2 infection asks the nurse about future sexual activity. Which response would be appropriate?
- A. Use a condom during sexual activity if the infection becomes active again.
- B. If the infection has healed, you probably don't have to use a condom.
- C. Inform all potential sexual partners about the infection, even if it is inactive.
- D. Refrain from all sexual activity until you don't have another outbreak for a year.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The nurse should advise the client to inform all potential sexual partners of the HSV infection even if it is in an inactive state. The nurse should also advise the client to use a condom during sexual activity even if the disease is dormant and to avoid sexual contact if the infection is active. Condoms do not protect skin and mucous membranes left exposed.
A group of students are reviewing class material on sexually transmitted infections in preparation for a test. The students demonstrate understanding of the material when they identify which as the cause of condylomata?
- A. Herpes virus
- B. Human papilloma virus
- C. Treponema pallidum
- D. Hemophilus ducreyi bacillus
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Genital warts or condylomata are caused by the human papilloma virus (HPV). Herpes virus causes genital herpes. Treponema pallidum is the cause of syphilis. Hemophilus ducreyi bacillus is the cause of chancroid.
A female client with an anal gonorrhea infection experiences painful bowel elimination and a purulent rectal discharge. The nurse would predict which symptom as most likely to develop as the microorganism disseminates throughout the body?
- A. Painful joints
- B. Sore throat
- C. Intermenstrual bleeding
- D. Painful urination
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The client with an anal gonorrhea infection experiences symptoms of gonorrhea where the microorganism has invaded the rectum. After the microorganism disseminates throughout the body, the client may manifest a skin rash, fever, and painful joints. Other symptoms such as infections of the urinary tract or vagina, sore throat, intermenstrual bleeding due to cervicitis, and painful urination are associated with the organism's invasion of those structures, depending on the nature of the sexual contact.
The nurse is assessing an older adult client with a sexually transmitted infection (STI). Which of the following should inform the nurse's assessment?
- A. Older adults can be sexually active, and it is important to abandon biases suggesting otherwise.
- B. Older adults, because of their maturity, are rarely embarrassed to talk about this.
- C. Older adults know the ways to prevent STIs.
- D. Older adults who are sexually active have less risk for STIs than other age groups.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Nurses should abandon biases that older adults are sexually inactive. Therefore, when taking a health history, nurses should include questions about sexuality and behaviors that put them at risk for STIs. Older clients who are sexually active have the same risks of acquiring an STI as other age groups. Older adults who are not in monogamous relationships may not understand ways that are appropriate for preventing STIs. Some older adults with an STI are embarrassed and may not seek medical attention. Careful assessment is necessary to help the older adult receive medical treatment as quickly as possible.
The nurse is working in the labor and delivery suite when a client with active herpes simplex virus type 2 (HSV-2) appears in active labor. Which adjustment in the plan of care will the nurse prepare for?
- A. Administer an intravenous antibiotic to the mom while in labor.
- B. Complete a full assessment of the newborn on delivery.
- C. Prepare for a cesarean section.
- D. Place an antibacterial ointment on the mother's lesions.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The nurse is most accurate to prepare for a cesarean section because the mother has an active lesion and does not want to transmit the virus to the newborn. Antibiotic therapy does not prevent the transmission of the infection. A full assessment is always completed on the newborn and is not an adjustment in the plan of care. Antibacterial ointment is not placed on the mother's lesions.
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