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While planning care for a preschool child who has been physically and sexually abused, the nurse includes play therapy because it assists the child to:
- A. Act out aggression in an acceptable manner
- B. Express feelings that cannot easily be verbalized
- C. Interact with other children in the appropriate age group
- D. Learn adaptive behaviors through acting
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Express feelings that cannot easily be verbalized. Play therapy allows preschool children to express their emotions, trauma, and experiences through play activities, as they may not have the verbal skills to communicate their feelings effectively. This form of therapy helps the child process their emotions and experiences in a safe and non-threatening environment.
Incorrect Choices:
A: Acting out aggression in an acceptable manner is not the primary goal of play therapy for abused children. It is more about emotional expression and healing.
C: Interacting with other children in the appropriate age group is not the focus of play therapy for abused children. The primary goal is to address the trauma and emotional distress.
D: Learning adaptive behaviors through acting is not the main purpose of play therapy for abused children. It is more about emotional healing and expression.
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A nurse would attempt to reduce nighttime agitation for a patient with either delirium or dementia by:
- A. giving warm milk as a snack at bedtime.
- B. keeping a soft light on in the patient's room.
- C. placing a large-faced lighted alarm clock opposite the bed.
- D. hanging family pictures near enough to the bed to be easily seen.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: keeping a soft light on in the patient's room. This helps to reduce nighttime agitation by providing a soothing environment without complete darkness, which can cause confusion and disorientation in patients with delirium or dementia. Warm milk (A) may not address the underlying cause of agitation. A large-faced lighted alarm clock (C) may be distracting and increase confusion. Family pictures (D) may not directly impact nighttime agitation and could potentially overstimulate the patient.
A patient with schizophrenia has received typical (first-generation) antipsychotics for a year. His hallucinations are less intrusive, but he remains apathetic, has poverty of thought, cannot work, and is socially isolated. To address these symptoms, the nurse might consult the prescribing health care provider to suggest a change to:
- A. haloperidol (Haldol).
- B. olanzapine (Zyprexa).
- C. diphenhydramine (Benadryl).
- D. chlorpromazine (Thorazine).
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: olanzapine (Zyprexa). Olanzapine is an atypical (second-generation) antipsychotic that addresses both positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia. In this case, the patient still experiences negative symptoms like apathy, poverty of thought, and social withdrawal. Olanzapine has been shown to be effective in improving negative symptoms and overall functioning in patients with schizophrenia.
A: haloperidol is a typical (first-generation) antipsychotic that primarily targets positive symptoms like hallucinations, not negative symptoms.
C: diphenhydramine is an antihistamine with no known efficacy for treating schizophrenia symptoms.
D: chlorpromazine is a typical antipsychotic like haloperidol and is not typically used for addressing negative symptoms.
It has been discovered that all major anti-psychotic drugs
- A. block the action of dopamine
- B. facilitate the action of dopamine
- C. increase levels of dopamine
- D. decrease levels of dopamine
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Antipsychotics reduce psychotic symptoms by blocking dopamine receptors in the brain.
A client with antisocial personality disorder yells, 'Shut up about that, or I'll punch you in the nose!' and shakes his fist at another client in a group meeting after the client speaks negatively of illicit drug use. The nurse quickly determines that the client is at risk to act violently against others as evidenced by his aggressive behavior, verbal threats, and a history of impulsivity. Which is the best approach for the nurse to use?
- A. Seclude the client to protect the other clients and staff.
- B. Put the client in restraints to protect the milieu.
- C. Explore alternate ways to handle frustrating topics in the group.
- D. Tell the client to leave the group until he can behave appropriately.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Explore alternate ways to handle frustrating topics in the group. This approach is best because it focuses on addressing the underlying issue causing the client's aggression rather than just isolating or restraining the client. By exploring alternate ways to handle frustrating topics, the nurse can help the client develop healthier coping mechanisms and communication skills. This approach promotes therapeutic engagement and supports the client's growth and development.
Secluding the client (choice A) may escalate the situation and reinforce the client's aggressive behavior. Putting the client in restraints (choice B) is a restrictive measure that should only be used as a last resort for imminent danger. Telling the client to leave the group (choice D) may not address the root cause of the aggression and could lead to avoidance of addressing the client's issues.
A client with dementia is unable to name ordinary objects. Instead, he describes them (e.g., 'the thing you cut meat with'). The nurse should assess this as:
- A. Aphasia.
- B. Paraphasia.
- C. Apraxia.
- D. None of the above.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Paraphasia. Paraphasia is a language disturbance characterized by the substitution of one word for another, leading to incorrect or nonsensical speech. In the case of the client with dementia unable to name ordinary objects but describing them, such as 'the thing you cut meat with,' this behavior aligns with paraphasia. Aphasia (choice A) refers to a complete loss or impairment of language function, which is not the case here. Apraxia (choice C) involves the inability to perform purposeful movements, not language deficits. Therefore, the client's behavior is best assessed as paraphasia due to the characteristic word substitutions and descriptions given.