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While taking a client history, which factor(s) that place the client at risk for a hematologic health problem will the nurse document? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Family history of military excellence
- B. Diet low in iron and protein
- C. Excessive alcohol consumption
- D. Family history of allergies
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Excessive alcohol consumption. Alcohol can lead to various hematologic health problems such as anemia, bleeding disorders, and impaired immune function. Excessive alcohol intake can disrupt the production of red blood cells and platelets, leading to an increased risk of hematologic issues. Family history of military excellence (A) and family history of allergies (D) are not directly related to hematologic health problems. A diet low in iron and protein (B) can contribute to hematologic issues, but it is not as direct a risk factor as excessive alcohol consumption.
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An 18-month-old boy, whose parents are first cousins, is referred to you because of a significant episode of epistaxis. The parents report that the child had bleeding after circumcision and large hematomas with immunizations. Platelet aggregation studies show the following: This child's platelets are unable to interact with which of the following?
- A. ADP
- B. Fibrinogen
- C. von Willebrand factor
- D. Platelet factor 4
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fibrinogen. In this case, the child is likely suffering from Glanzmann thrombasthenia, a rare inherited platelet disorder where platelets lack the ability to bind to fibrinogen. This results in impaired platelet aggregation and clot formation, leading to bleeding tendencies. The other options (A, C, D) are not affected in Glanzmann thrombasthenia. Platelets interact normally with ADP (A), von Willebrand factor (C), and Platelet factor 4 (D) in this disorder.
A nurse is caring for a client who is taking filgrastim to treat neutropenia. The nurse should assess the client for which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Dusky nail beds
- B. Petechiae
- C. Enlarged spleen
- D. Swollen calf
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Enlarged spleen. Filgrastim stimulates the production of neutrophils, which can lead to splenomegaly as the spleen stores a large number of these cells. This can cause symptoms such as abdominal discomfort or fullness. Dusky nail beds (A), petechiae (B), and swollen calf (D) are not typically associated with filgrastim therapy and are more likely related to other conditions or medications.
Which of the following is associated with normocytic normochromic anaemia?
- A. Iron deficiency
- B. Primaquine
- C. Pregnancy
- D. Sickle cell disease
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Normocytic normochromic anemia is characterized by normal-sized red blood cells with normal hemoglobin content. Pregnancy is associated with increased blood volume and physiological hemodilution, leading to normocytic normochromic anemia. Iron deficiency (choice A) typically presents as microcytic hypochromic anemia. Primaquine (choice B) is associated with hemolytic anemia. Sickle cell disease (choice D) is characterized by sickle-shaped red blood cells and is associated with hemolytic anemia, making it different from normocytic normochromic anemia.
The nurse is caring for a patient who is being discharged after an emergency splenectomy following an automobile accident. Which instructions should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?
- A. Watch for excess bruising.
- B. Check for swollen lymph nodes.
- C. Take iron supplements to prevent anemia.
- D. Wash hands and avoid persons who are ill.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because after a splenectomy, the patient is at risk for infections due to a compromised immune system. Washing hands and avoiding sick individuals can help prevent infections.
A: Watching for excess bruising is not directly related to post-splenectomy care.
B: Checking for swollen lymph nodes is not a priority concern for a post-splenectomy patient.
C: Taking iron supplements may not be necessary immediately post-splenectomy and should be discussed with the healthcare provider.
The pathophysiology of venous thrombosis is often explained by Virchow's triad, which includes hypercoagulability, endothelial injury, and venous stasis. Based on Virchow's triad and your knowledge of risk factors for thrombosis, which of the following pediatric patients has the greatest risk of hospital-acquired venous thromboembolism?
- A. 3-day-old full-term infant admitted to hospital pediatrics for hyperbilirubinemia
- B. 6-month-old male admitted to the infectious disease unit for respiratory syncytial virus
- C. Ex-28 week premature infant, requiring NICU-level care for necrotizing enterocolitis
- D. 7-year-old male with acute lymphoblastic leukemia receiving maintenance chemotherapy admitted to hematology/oncology unit for fever and neutropenia
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the ex-28 week premature infant requiring NICU-level care for necrotizing enterocolitis has the greatest risk of hospital-acquired venous thromboembolism. Premature infants have inherent hypercoagulability due to immature coagulation factors and increased risk of endothelial injury from central lines or catheters. Necrotizing enterocolitis further increases the risk of venous stasis due to decreased gut perfusion.
Choice A: The 3-day-old full-term infant admitted for hyperbilirubinemia is less likely to have significant risk factors for thrombosis compared to a premature infant with necrotizing enterocolitis.
Choice B: The 6-month-old male admitted for respiratory syncytial virus is less likely to have prolonged immobilization or other significant risk factors compared to a premature infant in the NICU.
Choice D: The 7-year-old male with acute lymphoblastic leukemia has a higher risk of thromb