Nokea
Why should the nurse assess the client's pressure dressing frequently after an angiography procedure?
- A. To note frank bleeding.
- B. To note hematoma formation.
- C. To check for signs of arterial occlusion.
- D. To assess peripheral pulses.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: To note hematoma formation. After an angiography procedure, there is a risk of bleeding under the pressure dressing, leading to hematoma formation. By assessing the dressing frequently, the nurse can detect any signs of hematoma early, preventing complications such as compromised circulation or infection. Checking for frank bleeding (Choice A) is important but less likely to occur under a pressure dressing. Arterial occlusion (Choice C) is a serious but less immediate concern post-angiography. Assessing peripheral pulses (Choice D) is also important but not specific to monitoring for hematoma formation.
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A 22-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a complaint of severe menstrual cramps. The nurse suspects dysmenorrhea. Which of the following is the most likely cause of dysmenorrhea?
- A. Uterine contractions.
- B. Endometriosis.
- C. Ovarian cysts.
- D. Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS).
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Ovarian cysts. Ovarian cysts can cause dysmenorrhea by disrupting the normal menstrual cycle and causing pain. Endometriosis (B) is another common cause of dysmenorrhea, but it involves the abnormal growth of endometrial tissue outside the uterus. Uterine contractions (A) are a normal part of menstruation and may cause cramping but are not the primary cause of dysmenorrhea. PCOS (D) is a hormonal disorder that can cause irregular periods and pain, but it is not the most likely cause of dysmenorrhea in this case.
Combivir is a combination therapy used to treat HIV and AIDS include which * of the following drugs?
- A. Lamivudine and stavudine
- B. Lamivudine and zidovudine
- C. Abacavir and zidovudine
- D. Abacavir and stavudine
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Lamivudine and zidovudine. Combivir is a combination therapy that consists of these two drugs. Lamivudine and zidovudine work together to inhibit the replication of the HIV virus. Lamivudine is a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor, while zidovudine is a nucleoside analog reverse transcriptase inhibitor. Both drugs target different stages of the HIV life cycle, making them effective when used in combination.
Choice A (Lamivudine and stavudine) is incorrect because stavudine is not part of the Combivir combination therapy. Choice C (Abacavir and zidovudine) is incorrect because abacavir is not included in Combivir. Choice D (Abacavir and stavudine) is incorrect because stavudine is not part of the Combivir combination therapy.
What would the nurse first anticipate in the treatment of a patient in the Injury stage of the RIFLE staging of AKI?
- A. Assess daily weight
- B. IV administration of fluid and furosemide (Lasix)
- C. IV administration of insulin and sodium bicarbonate
- D. Urinalysis to check for sediment, osmolality, sodium, and specific gravity
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because in the Injury stage of AKI, the priority is to maintain fluid balance and prevent further kidney damage. IV fluid administration helps improve renal perfusion, while furosemide helps manage fluid overload.
A: Assessing daily weight is important but not the first priority in the Injury stage.
C: IV insulin and sodium bicarbonate are not typically indicated in the initial treatment of AKI.
D: Urinalysis is important for diagnostics but not the first intervention in the Injury stage.
A 75 year old man is suffering from benign prostatic hypertrophy and is being treated with terazosin. Which of the following adverse reaction would be expected taking this drug?
- A. Erectile dysfunction
- B. Orthostatic hypotension
- C. GI distress
- D. Gynecomastia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Orthostatic hypotension. Terazosin is an alpha-1 blocker commonly used to treat benign prostatic hypertrophy. It works by relaxing smooth muscle in the prostate and bladder neck. This relaxation can lead to vasodilation and subsequently cause a drop in blood pressure. Orthostatic hypotension is a common adverse reaction of alpha-1 blockers due to this mechanism. The other choices, A: Erectile dysfunction, C: GI distress, and D: Gynecomastia are not typically associated with terazosin use. Erectile dysfunction can actually be improved with alpha-1 blockers as they relax smooth muscle in the prostate, allowing for easier urination and potentially improved sexual function. GI distress and gynecomastia are not common side effects of terazosin.
A 35-year-old woman is at the clinic for a gynecologic examination. During the examination, she asks the nurse, 'How often do I need to have this Pap test done?' Which reply by the nurse is correct?
- A. It depends. Do you smoke?
- B. A Pap test needs to be performed annually until you are 65 years of age.
- C. If you have two consecutive normal Pap tests, then you can wait 5 years between tests.
- D. After age 30 years, if you have three consecutive normal Pap tests, then you may be screened every 2 to 3 years.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because it follows the current guidelines for cervical cancer screening. Starting at age 30, if a woman has had three consecutive normal Pap tests, she can be screened every 2 to 3 years. This is based on the evidence that the risk of cervical cancer is low in women with a history of normal Pap tests. Option A is incorrect as smoking status does not determine Pap test frequency. Option B is incorrect as annual Pap tests are no longer recommended for all women. Option C is incorrect as waiting 5 years between tests is not the standard recommendation based on guidelines.