Endocrine System Test Questions

Endocrine System Test Questions Related

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With respect to calcium metabolism / bone formation:

  • A. osteoclasts secrete alkaline phosphatase
  • B. osteoblasts are haemopoietic derivatives of monocyte lineage
  • C. 1,25(OH)2 ???D3 and PTH stimulate both osteoblasts and osteoclasts
  • D. oestrogens are thought to be protective of osteoporosis as their main effect is osteoblasts stimulation
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (C):
1,25(OH)2 D3 and PTH stimulate both osteoblasts and osteoclasts. 1,25(OH)2 D3 enhances calcium absorption in the gut, promotes bone resorption, and stimulates osteoclast activity. PTH increases calcium levels in the blood by enhancing calcium reabsorption in the kidney and stimulating osteoclast activity. Both hormones indirectly stimulate osteoblasts by increasing calcium availability for bone formation.

Summary of Incorrect Choices:
A: Osteoclasts actually secrete acid, not alkaline phosphatase.
B: Osteoblasts are derived from mesenchymal stem cells, not monocytes.
D: Estrogens have a dual effect, inhibiting bone resorption by osteoclasts and stimulating bone formation by osteoblasts; their main effect is inhibiting osteoclast activity, not solely stimulating osteoblasts.

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Cellular responses to hormones that initiate second-messenger systems include ________.

  • A. possible activation of several different second-messenger systems
  • B. cyclic AMP phosphodiesterase formation of an active second messenger
  • C. formation of a specific protein kinase that acts on a series of extracellular intermediates
  • D. hormone binding to intracellular receptors
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because cellular responses to hormones initiating second-messenger systems can activate various pathways. Different hormones can utilize different second messengers such as cAMP, cGMP, IP3, and DAG. This diversity allows for a wide range of responses in target cells.

Choice B is incorrect because cyclic AMP phosphodiesterase degrades cAMP, not forms an active second messenger.

Choice C is incorrect as it describes the mechanism of a specific protein kinase, which is not a characteristic of second-messenger systems.

Choice D is incorrect since hormone binding to intracellular receptors typically leads to gene transcription regulation, not direct activation of second-messenger systems.

The diabetic patient has all of these assessment findings. Which will you instruct the LPN/LVN to report immediately?

  • A. Fingerstick glucose of 185 mg/dL
  • B. Numbness and tingling in both feet
  • C. Profuse perspiration
  • D. Bunion on left great toe
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Numbness and tingling in both feet are signs of diabetic neuropathy and could be indicative of a worsening condition that requires immediate reporting.

What assessment findings, specific to the endocrine glands, should a nurse observe while inspecting the skin of a client during a physical examination?

  • A. Skin breaks that heal quickly
  • B. Excessive hair growth or loss
  • C. Increased thickness
  • D. Rashes with no underlying cause
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Excessive hair growth or loss can be indicative of endocrine imbalances, such as those seen in conditions like hyperthyroidism or polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS).

Which nerve is NOT involved in the efferent (motor) swallow reflex?

  • A. trigeminal
  • B. vagus
  • C. facial
  • D. hypoglossal
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: vagus. The efferent (motor) swallow reflex involves motor nerves that control swallowing muscles. The vagus nerve (cranial nerve X) is primarily responsible for the afferent (sensory) component of the swallow reflex, while the efferent component is carried out by other cranial nerves such as the glossopharyngeal (IX), facial (VII), and hypoglossal (XII) nerves. Therefore, the vagus nerve is not directly involved in the efferent motor response during swallowing. Trigeminal (V), facial (VII), and hypoglossal (XII) nerves play essential roles in the motor aspects of swallowing, making them incorrect choices.

Regarding calcium:

  • A. 20% of calcium is absorbed
  • B. active transport of Ca2+ out of the lumen occurs primarily in the lower small intestine
  • C. 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol induces calcium binding protein synthesis in mucosal cell
  • D. absorption is facilitated by phosphate
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol, the active form of vitamin D, does induce calcium binding protein synthesis in mucosal cells, facilitating calcium absorption. This process occurs in the small intestine. Choices A and B are incorrect because around 30% of calcium is typically absorbed, and active transport of Ca2+ primarily occurs in the upper small intestine. Choice D is incorrect because phosphate does not directly facilitate calcium absorption.

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