Nokea
With respect to tumor nomenclature, the AGACNP knows that the term carcinoma describes
- A. Malignant neoplasms of internal structure
- B. Tumors that have lost normal growth regulation
- C. A dysfunctional metaplastic adaptation
- D. Neoplasms of epithelial origin
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The term "carcinoma" specifically refers to malignant neoplasms that arise from epithelial cells. Epithelial cells are the cells that line the internal and external surfaces of the body. Carcinomas account for the majority of all cancers and can occur in various organs such as the skin, lungs, breasts, colon, and prostate, among others. Carcinomas are characterized by their ability to invade surrounding tissues and potentially metastasize to distant sites in the body. Therefore, option D is the correct choice when describing what the term "carcinoma" signifies in tumor nomenclature.
You may also like to solve these questions
Occipito-posterior position: b) Define occipito-posterior position
- A. Fetus faces the mother's spine with head down
- B. Fetal head facing the mother's back
- C. Head facing the mother's pelvis, facing the back
- D. Both B and C
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Occipito-posterior position occurs when the baby faces the mother's back with the head down.
Based on vaginal examination findings, indicators of abnormal labor are
- A. Bandl’s ring and oedematous vulva
- B. Oedematous cervix and fetal hypoxia
- C. Maternal distress and severe moulding
- D. Hot, dry vagina and arrest in descent
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A hot, dry vagina and lack of descent suggest abnormal labor patterns.
Predisposing factors to vitamin K deficiency bleeding include
- A. Postdatism, prematurity
- B. Asphyxia, congenital abnormalities
- C. Prematurity, hypoxia
- D. Hypoxia, congenital abnormalities
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Postdatism and prematurity are significant risk factors for vitamin K deficiency bleeding.
Justin F. is seen in the emergency department with an 8-cm jagged laceration on the dorsal surface of his right forearm. He says he was working with his brother-in-law yesterday morning building a deck on the back of his home. A pile of wooden planks fell on top of him, and he sustained a variety of cuts and superficial injuries. He cleaned the wound with soap and water but didnt want to go to the emergency room because he didnt want to risk being in the waiting room for hours. He wrapped up his arm and went back to work, and then took a normal shower and went to bed last night. This morning the cut on his arm was still flapping open, and he realized he needed sutures. The appropriate management of this patient includes
- A. Proper cleansing and covering of the laceration, along with antibiotic therapy
- B. Local anesthesia, cleansing, and wound exploration for foreign bodies
- C. Local anesthesia, cleansing, and suture repair
- D. Cleansing, covering, antibiotic therapy, and tetanus prophylaxis
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the patient presents with a jagged laceration on his forearm that is still open and requires sutures. The appropriate management for this patient involves local anesthesia to reduce pain, thorough cleansing of the wound to prevent infection, and wound exploration to assess for any foreign bodies that may be present. Suturing the wound is necessary to promote proper healing and reduce the risk of complications. Antibiotic therapy may be indicated if signs of infection are present, but it is not mentioned in the scenario as a primary management step. Tetanus prophylaxis should also be considered given the mechanism of injury involving a dirty object.
The AGACNP is treating a patient with ascites. After a regimen of 200 mg of spironolactone daily, the patient demonstrates a weight loss of 0.75 kgday. The best approach to this patients management is to
- A. Continue the current regimen
- B. D/C the spironolactone and begin a loop diuretic
- C. Add a loop diuretic to the spironolactone
- D. Proceed to large-volume paracentesis Which of the following is a true statement with respect to the use of corticosteroids in posttransplant patients?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best approach to managing the patient with ascites who has responded to spironolactone with weight loss is to add a loop diuretic to the current regimen. Spironolactone is an aldosterone antagonist that primarily works on the distal convoluted tubule, while loop diuretics, such as furosemide, act on the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle. Combining these two diuretics can result in a synergistic effect, increasing diuresis and reducing fluid retention in patients with ascites. This combination therapy is often used in patients who do not respond adequately to spironolactone alone, and it is considered a common strategy in the management of ascites due to cirrhosis. Therefore, adding a loop diuretic to the spironolactone regimen is the most appropriate next step to optimize diuresis and fluid management in this patient.