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You are meeting with parents of a 12-year-old girl who recently diagnosed with papillary thyroid carcinoma (PTC). The statement that should be included in your discussion is
- A. PTC has a grim overall prognosis
- B. FTC do not require radioactive iodine therapy
- C. supraphysiologic levothyroxine therapy is required during long-term follow-up
- D. calcitonin/carcinogenic antigen monitoring is required during the course of treatment
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Levothyroxine suppression therapy is standard in differentiated thyroid cancer.
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Mr. and Mrs. Robertson's son was diagnosed with idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura. They should be aware that the drug to be avoided is:
- A. Acetaminophen
- B. Aspirin
- C. Codeine
- D. Morphine
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura is a condition characterized by a low platelet count. Aspirin is a known blood thinner and can further decrease platelet function, potentially worsening thrombocytopenia. Therefore, Mr. and Mrs. Robertson's son should avoid taking aspirin to prevent any exacerbation of his condition.
The nurse is teaching the family about caring for their 7-year-old, who has been diagnosed with type I DM. What information should the nurse provide about type I DM?
- A. Best managed through diet, exercise, and oral medication.
- B. Can be prevented by proper nutrition and activity.
- C. Characterized mainly by insulin resistance.
- D. Characterized mainly by insulin deficiency.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Type I DM, also known as insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus, is characterized mainly by insulin deficiency. In this type of diabetes, the pancreas produces little to no insulin, which is essential for regulating blood glucose levels. Therefore, individuals with type I DM require lifelong insulin therapy to manage their condition. Unlike type II DM, which is associated with insulin resistance, type I DM is not preventable through lifestyle modifications like diet and exercise alone. It is crucial for the nurse to educate the family about the importance of insulin therapy, monitoring blood glucose levels, carbohydrate counting, and responding to hypoglycemic episodes in caring for their 7-year-old with type I DM.
Which of the following assessment findings would suggest to the home health nurse that the patient is developing congestive heart failure?
- A. orthopnea
- B. fever
- C. weight loss
- D. calf pain A1 PASSERS TRAINING, RESEARCH, REVIEW & DEVELOPMENT COMPANY MEDICAL SURGICAL NURSING SET O
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Orthopnea is a common symptom of congestive heart failure. It is defined as difficulty in breathing when lying flat, which improves when sitting up or standing. This occurs due to the redistribution of blood in the body when changing positions. As fluid accumulates in the lungs in congestive heart failure, lying down increases pressure on the chest and impairs breathing. Therefore, orthopnea is a significant assessment finding that would suggest to the home health nurse that the patient is developing congestive heart failure. Fever, weight loss, and calf pain are not typically associated with congestive heart failure.
An inborn error of metabolism that causes a premature destruction of RBC?
- A. G6PD
- B. Homocystinuria
- C. Phenylketonuria
- D. Celiac Disease
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency is an inborn error of metabolism that leads to the premature destruction of red blood cells (hemolysis). G6PD is an enzyme responsible for protecting red blood cells from oxidative damage. In individuals with G6PD deficiency, the red blood cells are more susceptible to oxidative stress, leading to their destruction and resulting in hemolytic anemia. This condition is commonly triggered by certain medications, infections, or dietary factors that cause oxidative stress, leading to hemolysis. Homocystinuria, Phenylketonuria, and Celiac Disease are metabolic disorders that do not typically result in the premature destruction of red blood cells.
Which statement is true about gonorrhea?
- A. It is caused by Treponema pallidum.
- B. Treatment is by multidose administration of penicillin.
- C. Treatment is by topical applications to lesions.
- D. Treatment of all sexual contacts is an essential part of treatment.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Gonorrhea is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the bacterium Neisseria gonorrhoeae. The recommended treatment for gonorrhea is a combination of antibiotics. Currently, multidose administration of antibiotics such as ceftriaxone or azithromycin is often used due to increasing antibiotic resistance. Treatment by topical applications to lesions is not effective in treating systemic infections like gonorrhea. Treating all sexual contacts is an essential part of the management of gonorrhea to prevent reinfection and further transmission of the infection.