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Which of the following groups of terms best describes a nurse-initiated intervention?
- A. Dependent, physician-ordered, recovery
- B. Autonomous, clinical judgment, client outcomes
- C. Medical diagnosis, medication administration
- D. Other health care providers, skill acquisition
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because nurse-initiated interventions involve autonomous actions based on clinical judgment to achieve client outcomes. Nurses assess, plan, and implement care independently. Choice A involves physician orders, not nurse-initiated actions. Choice C relates to medical treatment, not nursing interventions. Choice D focuses on collaboration with other providers, not solely nurse-initiated actions. In summary, only choice B aligns with the independent and outcome-focused nature of nurse-initiated interventions.
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To prevent infection in a patient with a subdural intracranial pressure monitoring system in place, the nurse should;
- A. Use aseptic technique for the insertion site.
- B. Use clean technique for cleansing connections and aseptic technique for the insertion site.
- C. Use sterile technique when cleansing the insertion site
- D. Close any leaks in the tubing with tape. SITUATION: Mr. Dela Isla, a client with early Dementia exhibits thought process disturbances.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Use aseptic technique for the insertion site. Aseptic technique is crucial for preventing infection when accessing or caring for an invasive monitoring system like a subdural intracranial pressure monitoring system. Aseptic technique involves maintaining a sterile field, washing hands, using sterile gloves, and using sterile supplies to minimize the risk of contamination. This is essential to prevent introducing harmful microorganisms into the patient's system. Using clean technique (B) or sterile technique only when cleansing the insertion site (C) may not provide adequate protection against infection. Closing leaks in the tubing with tape (D) is not an appropriate method for preventing infection and can lead to complications.
When monitoring for hypernatremia, the nurse should assess the client for:
- A. Dry skin
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Confusion
- D. Pale coloring
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Confusion. Hypernatremia is an electrolyte imbalance characterized by high sodium levels in the blood. Confusion is a common symptom as high sodium levels can affect brain function. Dry skin (A) is more indicative of dehydration, tachycardia (B) is a symptom of various conditions, and pale coloring (D) is not specific to hypernatremia. Confusion is a key indicator that the nurse should assess for when monitoring for hypernatremia.
Which initial intervention is most appropriate for a patient who has a new onset of chest pain?
- A. Reassess the patient.
- B. Notify the health care provider.
- C. Administer a prn medication for pain.
- D. Call radiology for a portable chest x-ray.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, notifying the health care provider. This is the most appropriate initial intervention because chest pain can be a symptom of a serious medical condition like a heart attack. The health care provider needs to be informed immediately to assess the situation and provide appropriate treatment. Reassessing the patient (A) may delay crucial medical intervention. Administering pain medication (C) without knowing the cause of chest pain can be dangerous. Calling radiology for a chest x-ray (D) is not the initial step in managing new onset chest pain.
During a routine checkup, the nurse assesses a client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) for signs and symptoms of cancer. What is the common AIDS-related cancer?
- A. Squamous cell carcinoma
- B. Leukemia
- C. Multiple myeloma
- D. Kaposi’s sarcoma
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Kaposi’s sarcoma. This is a common AIDS-related cancer caused by Human Herpesvirus 8 (HHV-8) in immunosuppressed individuals. It presents as purplish lesions on the skin and mucous membranes. Squamous cell carcinoma (A) is not specific to AIDS. Leukemia (B) and Multiple myeloma (C) are not commonly associated with AIDS. Kaposi’s sarcoma is the hallmark cancer seen in AIDS patients due to their weakened immune system.
A client diagnosed with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS) is stabilized and prepared for discharge. When preparing the client for discharge and home management, which of the following statements indicates that the client understands her condition and how to control it?
- A. “I can avoid getting sick by not becoming dehydrated and by paying attention to my need to urinate, drink, or eat more than usual.”
- B. “If I experience trembling, weakness, and headache, I should drink a glass of soda that contains sugar.”
- C. “I will have to monitor my blood glucose level closely and notify the physician if it’s constantly elevated.”
- D. “If I begin to feel especially hungry and thirsty, I’ll eat a snack high in carbohydrates.”
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because it demonstrates an understanding of the key factors in managing hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS), which include avoiding dehydration and being aware of changes in urination, thirst, and hunger. This statement shows awareness of the importance of maintaining hydration and recognizing early signs of worsening symptoms.
Choice B is incorrect as consuming sugary soda can exacerbate the condition by further increasing blood sugar levels. Choice C is incorrect because while monitoring blood glucose levels is important, it is not the primary method of preventing HHNS. Choice D is incorrect because consuming high-carbohydrate snacks can contribute to elevated blood glucose levels, which is counterproductive in managing HHNS.