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A nurse is evaluating the effectiveness of preconception education. Which statement by the client indicates that additional education is needed?
- A. I know smoking is harmful in pregnancy, so I plan to quit soon. My husband has agreed to avoid smoking in my presence.
- B. I have started taking a daily prenatal vitamin with folic acid.
- C. My husband bought a small desk for his laptop computer.
- D. We plan to avoid the use of chemicals in our garden this year.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the statement about the husband buying a small desk for his laptop computer is irrelevant to preconception education. The focus of preconception education is on optimizing health before pregnancy, such as quitting smoking, taking prenatal vitamins, and avoiding harmful chemicals. The other choices (A, B, and D) all demonstrate an understanding of preconception health needs. Choice A shows awareness of the risks of smoking in pregnancy and a plan to quit. Choice B indicates the initiation of prenatal vitamin intake, particularly folic acid, which is crucial for preventing birth defects. Choice D highlights a proactive approach to environmental health by planning to avoid harmful chemicals in the garden.
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A client is admitted to the labor and birthing suite in early labor. On review of her prenatal history, the nurse determines that the client's pelvic shape as identified in the antepartum notes is the most favorable one for a vaginal birth. Which pelvic shape would the nurse have noted?
- A. platypelloid
- B. gynecoid
- C. android
- D. anthropoid
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The gynecoid pelvic shape is the most favorable for vaginal birth due to its optimal dimensions and orientation for the passage of the fetus. The anthropoid pelvis is also favorable for vaginal birth, but it is not the most favorable shape. The android pelvis and platypelloid pelvis are less favorable for vaginal birth, with the android pelvis having slow descent of the fetal head and the platypelloid pelvis often requiring cesarean birth.
A patient is prescribed clomiphene citrate. What should the nurse explain about this medication?
- A. It is an injectable medication for ovulation induction.
- B. It stimulates the pituitary gland to release hormones necessary for ovulation.
- C. It suppresses ovulation to regulate the menstrual cycle.
- D. It is used to treat polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) symptoms only.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because clomiphene citrate works by stimulating the pituitary gland to release hormones necessary for ovulation. This helps in the treatment of infertility by inducing ovulation in women who do not ovulate regularly. Option A is incorrect because clomiphene citrate is not an injectable medication. Option C is incorrect because clomiphene citrate does not suppress ovulation, but rather stimulates it. Option D is incorrect because clomiphene citrate is used for ovulation induction, not just for treating PCOS symptoms.
A patient and her husband request to view the results of their infant's karyotype. An aneuploidy was noted. The nurse understands the results to indicate what?
- A. An abnormal number of chromosomes were present on the karyogram.
- B. Translocations were noted on some of the chromosomes.
- C. The infant's chromosomes had broken areas, causing an abnormality in the picture of the chromosomes.
- D. Some of the infant's chromosomes were duplicated to total 46 chromosomes.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A karyotype is a visual representation of an individual's chromosomes. An aneuploidy indicates an abnormal number of chromosomes, which can result in genetic disorders such as Down syndrome. A karyotype shows the number, size, and shape of chromosomes, so an abnormal number of chromosomes on the karyogram is the correct interpretation.
Summary of Other Choices:
B: Translocations involve the movement of genetic material between chromosomes, not an abnormal number of chromosomes.
C: Chromosomal breaks would not typically result in an aneuploidy but rather structural abnormalities.
D: Duplication of chromosomes to total 46 would not lead to aneuploidy but rather a normal chromosome count.
A patient has been diagnosed with an incompetent cervix (the cervix will not remain closed). What treatment option will be incorporated into the plan of care for this patient?
- A. Bed rest throughout the pregnancy.
- B. Wait and see approach to determine if the patient goes into preterm labor.
- C. Preparation for cerclage procedure at 32 weeks' gestation.
- D. More frequent ultrasounds to assess progression of pregnancy.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because more frequent ultrasounds are necessary to monitor the progression of the pregnancy in a patient with an incompetent cervix. This allows healthcare providers to assess the cervix's condition and the risk of preterm labor.
A: Bed rest is not the primary treatment for an incompetent cervix as it does not address the underlying issue.
B: A wait and see approach may lead to missed opportunities for preventive interventions.
C: Preparation for cerclage at 32 weeks is too late as cerclage is typically done earlier to provide support to the cervix.
A patient asks about the purpose of egg retrieval in IVF. What should the nurse explain?
- A. Egg retrieval removes immature eggs for storage.
- B. It collects mature eggs from the ovaries for fertilization in the lab.
- C. Egg retrieval monitors ovarian reserve.
- D. It is performed after implantation to confirm pregnancy.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: It collects mature eggs from the ovaries for fertilization in the lab.
Rationale:
1. Egg retrieval in IVF involves retrieving mature eggs from the woman's ovaries to be fertilized with sperm in a laboratory setting.
2. These fertilized eggs (embryos) are then transferred back into the uterus for potential implantation.
3. This process is crucial for successful IVF as it allows for controlled fertilization outside the body.
Summary of other choices:
A: Incorrect. Egg retrieval is not for storing immature eggs but for obtaining mature eggs for immediate fertilization.
C: Incorrect. Egg retrieval is not for monitoring ovarian reserve; this is typically done through other tests.
D: Incorrect. Egg retrieval occurs before implantation to collect eggs for fertilization, not after implantation.