Nokea
What disease is associated with autoantibodies binding to type IV collagen?
- A. Sarcoidosis
- B. Goodpasture's syndrome
- C. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
- D. Rheumatoid arthritis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Goodpasture's syndrome. This disease is specifically associated with autoantibodies targeting type IV collagen in the basement membranes of the kidneys and lungs, leading to glomerulonephritis and pulmonary hemorrhage. Sarcoidosis (A) involves non-caseating granulomas, not collagen autoantibodies. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) (C) is associated with various autoantibodies but not specifically targeting type IV collagen. Rheumatoid arthritis (D) is characterized by autoantibodies against citrullinated peptides and synovial tissue, not type IV collagen.
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What term describes the increased affinity of antibodies during a secondary response?
- A. Isotype switching
- B. Affinity maturation
- C. Somatic recombination
- D. Clonal expansion
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Affinity maturation. During a secondary immune response, B cells undergo somatic hypermutation, leading to the production of antibodies with higher affinity for the antigen. This process occurs in germinal centers within secondary lymphoid organs. Isotype switching (A) refers to the change in antibody class but not affinity. Somatic recombination (C) is the process of creating diverse antibody repertoires. Clonal expansion (D) involves the proliferation of antigen-specific B cells but does not directly address affinity enhancement.
What are the recommended measures to prevent the transmission of health care–associated infections (HAIs) (select all that apply)?
- A. Empty bedpans as soon as possible
- B. Use personal protective equipment
- C. Hand washing or alcohol-based sanitizing
- D. Have patients wear sandals in the shower
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer includes options B and C. Using personal protective equipment and practicing proper hand hygiene are critical measures to prevent HAIs. Emptying bedpans promptly and having patients wear sandals in the shower are not directly related to preventing HAIs.
A pregnant client requires immediate but temporary protection from chickenpox. Which type of immunization would be required?
- A. Naturally acquired active immunization
- B. Artificially acquired active immunization
- C. Passive immunization
- D. Artificially acquired passive immunization
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Passive immunization provides immediate but temporary protection by introducing pre-formed antibodies which is crucial for a pregnant client who cannot wait for an active immune response.
A monoclonal antibody called '3F8' was developed to treat neuroblastoma and was subsequently improved by:
- A. Making it more specific for neuroblastoma antigens
- B. Engineering a form that has human rather than mouse variable region protein sequences
- C. Engineering a form that has human rather than mouse constant region protein sequences
- D. Two of these responses are correct
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. By engineering a form of the antibody with human variable region protein sequences (choice B), it reduces the risk of immune response in patients. Similarly, by engineering a form with human constant region protein sequences (choice C), it further reduces immunogenicity. Therefore, both B and C contribute to making the antibody more suitable for human use, enhancing its efficacy and safety in treating neuroblastoma. Choices A and D are incorrect as they do not address the crucial aspect of reducing immunogenicity through humanization of the antibody.
What is the correct order of steps needed for 2nd generation sequencing?
- A. DNA fragmentation, DNA isolation, amplification, primer ligation, sequencing
- B. Amplification, primer ligation, sequencing, DNA fragmentation, DNA isolation
- C. DNA isolation, DNA fragmentation, primer ligation, amplification, sequencing
- D. Sequencing, DNA isolation, DNA fragmentation, primer ligation, amplification
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct order of steps for 2nd generation sequencing is C: DNA isolation, DNA fragmentation, primer ligation, amplification, sequencing. Firstly, DNA isolation is crucial to extract the DNA from the sample. Next, DNA fragmentation breaks the DNA into smaller fragments for sequencing. Primer ligation involves attaching primers to the DNA fragments. Amplification is necessary to make multiple copies of the DNA fragments for sequencing. Finally, sequencing is the process of determining the nucleotide sequence of the DNA fragments. This order ensures that the DNA is properly prepared and amplified before sequencing, leading to accurate results.
Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not follow the correct sequence of steps required for 2nd generation sequencing. Incorrect sequences may lead to errors in the sequencing process and inaccurate results.