Nokea
Which finding from the nurse’s physical assessment of a 42-yr-old male patient should be reported to the health care provider?
- A. One testis hangs lower than the other.
- B. Genital hair distribution is diamond shaped
- C. Clear discharge is present at the penile meatus.
- D. Inguinal lymph nodes are nonpalpable bilaterally.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because palpable inguinal lymph nodes could indicate an underlying infection or malignancy, requiring further evaluation by the healthcare provider. This finding is concerning and needs attention.
A: One testis hanging lower than the other is a normal variation and does not typically require reporting.
B: Genital hair distribution being diamond-shaped is a common pattern and is not an abnormal finding that necessitates reporting.
C: Clear discharge at the penile meatus could be normal or due to benign conditions such as urethral irritation, so it may not require immediate reporting unless other concerning symptoms are present.
You may also like to solve these questions
Circular movement around an axis is known as ___________________.
- A. Dorsiflexion
- B. Rotation
- C. Extension
- D. Pronation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Rotation. Circular movement around an axis is described as rotation. This movement involves turning or spinning around a fixed point. Dorsiflexion (A) is the movement of bringing the top of the foot towards the shin. Extension (C) refers to straightening or increasing the angle of a joint. Pronation (D) is the inward rotation of the forearm or foot. Rotation (B) specifically signifies movement around an axis, making it the most appropriate choice for circular movement.
Absence of menstruation
- A. Rhinorrhea
- B. Amenorrhea
- C. Menorrhagia
- D. Leucorrhea
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Amenorrhea. Amenorrhea refers to the absence of menstruation, which can be caused by various factors such as hormonal imbalances, stress, pregnancy, or medical conditions. Rhinorrhea (A) is the medical term for a runny nose, unrelated to menstruation. Menorrhagia (C) is excessive menstrual bleeding, the opposite of absence of menstruation. Leucorrhea (D) is a vaginal discharge, not related to the absence of menstruation. Therefore, B is the correct answer as it directly addresses the absence of menstruation.
A young woman is given daily injections of a substance beginning on the 16th day of her normal menstrual cycle and continuing for 3 weeks. As long as the injections continue, she does not menstruate. The injected substance could be which of the following?
- A. Testosterone
- B. FSH
- C. An inhibitor of progesterone’s actions
- D. A prostaglandin E2 inhibitor
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: An inhibitor of progesterone’s actions. Progesterone is responsible for maintaining the uterine lining, and inhibiting its actions would prevent menstruation. Testosterone (A) and FSH (B) do not directly affect menstruation. Prostaglandin E2 (D) is involved in the menstrual process, but inhibiting it would not necessarily stop menstruation.
A nurse is working with a client who has undergone chemotherapy for breast cancer. The client is experiencing body image disturbances. Which of the following symptoms would contribute to this psychosocial issue?
- A. Fatigue
- B. Vomiting
- C. Hair loss
- D. Nausea
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Hair loss is a visible side effect of chemotherapy that can significantly impact body image.
A 68-yr-old male patient tells the nurse that he is worried because he does not respond to sexual stimulation the same way he did when he was younger. Which is the nurse’s best response to the patient’s concern?
- A. “Interest in sex frequently decreases as men get older.”
- B. “Many men need additional sexual stimulation with aging.”
- C. “Erectile dysfunction is a common problem with older men.”
- D. “Tell me more about how your sexual response has change
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: "Many men need additional sexual stimulation with aging." With aging, physiological changes can affect sexual response. Additional stimulation may be required due to lower hormone levels and decreased sensitivity. This response acknowledges the patient's concern and provides a factual explanation.
Incorrect answers:
A: "Interest in sex frequently decreases as men get older." - While libido may decrease with age, it doesn't directly address the patient's concern about sexual response.
C: "Erectile dysfunction is a common problem with older men." - Erectile dysfunction is only one aspect of sexual response and may not be the main issue for the patient.
D: "Tell me more about how your sexual response has changed." - While this shows empathy, it doesn't provide information or address the potential need for additional stimulation.