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A 22-year-old woman has been considering using oral contraceptives. As a part of her health history, the nurse should ask:
- A. Do you have a history of heart murmurs?
- B. Will you be in a monogamous relationship?
- C. Have you carefully thought this choice through?
- D. If you smoke, how many cigarettes do you smoke per day?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because smoking increases the risk of cardiovascular complications with oral contraceptives. By asking about the number of cigarettes smoked per day, the nurse can assess the level of risk. Choice A is incorrect as it is not directly related to the safety of oral contraceptives. Choice B is important for overall sexual health but not directly related to the safety of oral contraceptives. Choice C is vague and does not provide specific information about potential risks associated with oral contraceptives.
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The best time for a woman of childbearing age to perform breast self-examination is
- A. during her menstrual period
- B. 2 days before the onset of her menstrual period
- C. 1 week after her menstrual period ends
- D. the day her menstrual period begins
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The best time for a woman of childbearing age to perform breast self-examination is 1 week after her menstrual period ends. This is because breast tissue tends to be less tender and lumpy during this time, making it easier to detect any abnormalities. Performing the examination at this time allows for a more accurate assessment of the breasts. Additionally, hormonal changes during the menstrual cycle can affect breast tissue, so performing the examination post-menstruation reduces the likelihood of false alarms. Choices A, B, and D are not ideal times as breast tenderness and hormonal fluctuations during the menstrual period can make it challenging to accurately detect abnormalities.
One of your patients is awaiting laboratory results for kidney function. The patient has recently recovered from a streptococcal throat infection. The patient has most likely developed symptoms of:
- A. Pyelonephritis.
- B. Nephrolithiasis.
- C. Chronic renal failure.
- D. Glomerulonephritis.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Glomerulonephritis. Streptococcal infection can lead to poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis (PSGN), an immune-mediated inflammation of the glomeruli in the kidneys. This results in hematuria, proteinuria, hypertension, and edema. Pyelonephritis (choice A) is a bacterial infection of the kidneys, not related to streptococcal infection. Nephrolithiasis (choice B) is the formation of kidney stones, which is not directly linked to streptococcal infection. Chronic renal failure (choice C) is a long-term decline in kidney function, not typically caused by streptococcal infection.
An outbreak of influenza A has just been reported in his community and a 45 year old man is exhibiting initial symptoms of influenza A. Which agent would be the most useful to treat him?
- A. Cidofovir
- B. Famciclovir
- C. Amantadine
- D. Ribavirin
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Amantadine. Amantadine is an antiviral medication that is specifically effective against influenza A virus. It works by blocking the viral ion channel, preventing the virus from entering the host cell. This inhibits viral replication and helps reduce the severity and duration of symptoms.
Choice A, Cidofovir, is used to treat certain DNA viruses but is not effective against influenza A. Choice B, Famciclovir, is used to treat herpes viruses, not influenza A. Choice D, Ribavirin, is an antiviral medication used for respiratory syncytial virus and hepatitis C, but not as effective against influenza A. Therefore, the most appropriate choice in this scenario is Amantadine due to its specific activity against influenza A virus.
Antiviral agents that is/ are active against cytomegalovirus (CMV) include * which of the following?
- A. Ganciclovir
- B. Foscarnet
- C. Acyclovir
- D. (
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for choice A (Ganciclovir) being the correct answer:
1. Ganciclovir is a nucleoside analog that inhibits CMV DNA synthesis.
2. It is specifically approved for the treatment of CMV retinitis in immunocompromised patients.
3. Ganciclovir has a high specificity for CMV, making it an effective antiviral agent against CMV.
Summary of why the other choices are incorrect:
- Choice B (Foscarnet) is also active against CMV but is not as commonly used as Ganciclovir.
- Choice C (Acyclovir) is not effective against CMV as it primarily targets herpes simplex virus and varicella-zoster virus.
- Choice D ( ) is an incomplete choice and does not correspond to any known antiviral agent.
A 28-year-old woman presents to the clinic with complaints of pelvic pain, urinary urgency, and dysuria. The nurse suspects interstitial cystitis. Which of the following is a common symptom of interstitial cystitis?
- A. Severe abdominal cramping.
- B. Painful urination and frequent bladder infections.
- C. Frequent urination and pelvic pressure.
- D. Dysuria and urinary retention.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Painful urination and frequent bladder infections. Interstitial cystitis is characterized by chronic bladder inflammation causing pain and discomfort during urination. This leads to painful urination and an increased risk of developing frequent bladder infections due to the compromised bladder lining. Severe abdominal cramping (A) is not a common symptom of interstitial cystitis. Frequent urination and pelvic pressure (C) are also common symptoms but not specific to interstitial cystitis. Dysuria and urinary retention (D) are not typically associated with interstitial cystitis.