A 23 year old pregnant woman has UTI and presents to the ER with fever, frequency and urgency. Which of the following antibiotics can cause potential harm to her fetus?
- A. Nitrofurantoin
- B. Amoxicillin
- C. Gentamycin
- D. Cephalexin
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Gentamycin. Gentamycin is known to have potential harmful effects on the fetus, such as causing hearing loss and kidney damage. This is due to its ability to cross the placental barrier. Amoxicillin (B) and Cephalexin (D) are both considered safe for use in pregnancy and are commonly prescribed for UTIs. Nitrofurantoin (A) is typically avoided in the third trimester due to the risk of hemolytic anemia in the newborn, but it is considered safe earlier in pregnancy. Therefore, Gentamycin is the correct choice as it poses a higher risk to the fetus compared to the other antibiotics.
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A 20 year old male patient is diagnosed with Chaga’s disease, American trypanosomiasis. Which drug would be the most appropriate for this patient?
- A. Nifurtimox
- B. Metronidazole
- C. Suramin
- D. Chloroquine
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Nifurtimox. Nifurtimox is the first-line treatment for Chagas disease caused by Trypanosoma cruzi. It is effective in treating both acute and chronic phases of the disease by reducing parasitemia. Metronidazole (B) is used for anaerobic bacterial infections, not trypanosomiasis. Suramin (C) is used for African trypanosomiasis, not American trypanosomiasis. Chloroquine (D) is used for malaria, not trypanosomiasis. Therefore, A is the most appropriate choice for this patient.
This drug is a pyrophosphate analog which inhibit DNA polymerase and * reverse transcriptase, is used only to treat associated cytomegalovirus infection in AIDS patient.
- A. Acyclovir
- B. Valacyclovir
- C. Amantadine
- D. Foscarnet
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Foscarnet. Foscarnet is a pyrophosphate analog that inhibits both DNA polymerase and reverse transcriptase, making it effective against cytomegalovirus (CMV) infections in AIDS patients. Acyclovir (A) and Valacyclovir (B) are antiviral drugs used for herpes infections, not CMV. Amantadine (C) is an antiviral used for influenza, not CMV. Therefore, Foscarnet is the correct choice for treating CMV in AIDS patients.
Which of the following fungicidal drug that acts by inhibiting fungal squalene epoxidase enzyme and is the drug of choice for onychomycosis of the toe nails in 56 year old woman with diabetes?
- A. Griseofulvin
- B. Terbinafine
- C. Itraconazole
- D. Amphotericin B
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step 1: Terbinafine is a fungicidal drug that inhibits fungal squalene epoxidase enzyme, disrupting fungal cell membrane synthesis.
Step 2: Onychomycosis of toenails is a common fungal infection that terbinafine is specifically effective against.
Step 3: The patient being a 56-year-old woman with diabetes may require a drug with good efficacy and safety profile, making terbinafine an appropriate choice.
Step 4: Griseofulvin (A) works by disrupting microtubule function, not inhibiting squalene epoxidase. Itraconazole (C) is an azole antifungal that inhibits ergosterol synthesis, not squalene epoxidase. Amphotericin B (D) is a polyene antifungal used for systemic mycoses, not onychomycosis.
The nurse is inspecting the scrotum and testes of a 43-year-old man. Which finding would require additional follow-up and evaluation?
- A. Skin on the scrotum is taut.
- B. Left testicle hangs lower than the right testicl
- D. Scrotal skin has yellowish 1-cm nodules that are firm and nontender.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the presence of yellowish 1-cm nodules that are firm and nontender on the scrotal skin could indicate a serious issue such as testicular cancer or a benign condition like sebaceous cysts. Further evaluation is necessary to rule out malignancy or infection.
A: Skin on the scrotum being taut is a normal finding.
B: Left testicle hanging lower than the right is a common anatomical variation, not a cause for concern.
C: The absence of information makes it impossible to determine if this finding requires follow-up.
Which of the following hormones is secreted by corpus albicans?
- A. Estrogen
- B. Progesterone
- C. Luteinizing hormone
- D. No hormones are secreted by the corpus albicans
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the corpus albicans is the end stage of the corpus luteum, which degenerates if fertilization does not occur. As a result, it no longer secretes hormones. Estrogen and progesterone are secreted by the corpus luteum, not the corpus albicans. Luteinizing hormone is produced by the anterior pituitary gland, not by the corpus albicans.