Nokea
A 31-year-old woman with chronic anemia presents with a deepening of her voice and a decrease in breast size.
- A. Clomiphene
- B. Hydrochlorothiazide
- C. Furosemide
- D. Nandrolone
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Nandrolone, an anabolic steroid, causes virilization (voice deepening, breast reduction).
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Beta 2 adrenergic receptor agonists:
- A. Relieve bronchospasms
- B. Potentiates hypertensive
- C. Catecholamine inhibits the reception
- D. Have porasympathominetic action on bronchi
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Beta-2 adrenergic agonists, like salbutamol, relieve bronchospasms by relaxing bronchial smooth muscle, making them key in asthma and COPD management.
A patient with asthma has been using a nicotine transdermal 24-hour patch for 3 weeks to quit smoking. The patient reports having difficulty sleeping. What action will the nurse take?
- A. Ask the provider for a prescription for Nicotrol NS
- B. Recommend removing the patch at bedtime
- C. Suggest using an 18-hour patch instead
- D. Tell the patient to stop the patch and join a support group
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: An 18-hour patch reduces sleep disruption while aiding cessation; Nicotrol is risky with asthma. The patient should try an 18-hour patch to help with sleep.
A nurse is reinforcing teaching for a client regarding how to mix regular insulin and NPH insulin in the same syringe. Which of the following actions, if performed by the client, indicates the need for further teaching?
- A. Withdraws the NPH insulin first
- B. Withdraws the regular insulin first
- C. Injects air into NPH insulin vial first
- D. Injects an amount of air equal to the desired dose of insulin into the vial
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When preparing a mixture of regular insulin with another insulin preparation, the regular insulin is drawn into the syringe first. This sequence will avoid contaminating the vial of regular insulin with insulin of another type. Options 2, 3, and 4 identify the correct actions for preparing NPH and regular insulin.
While caring for a patient scheduled for knee replacement surgery, the nurse provides cefazolin (Ancef) as ordered 30 minutes pre-operatively. The nurse knows that teaching has been effective by which of the following client statements?
- A. The antibiotic is given as a prophylactic to help reduce the risk of infection after surgery.'
- B. This is a palliative medication to help ease the pain from surgery.'
- C. This medication will replace vitamins and minerals that may be lost due to bleeding during surgery.'
- D. This medication will help the surgeon identify areas of bone destruction due to arthritis.'
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Cefazolin is administered pre-operatively as prophylaxis to prevent surgical site infections, aligning with standard practice and effective patient understanding.
Which of the following statements best defines how a chemical becomes a drug?
- A. A chemical must have a proven therapeutic value or efficacy without severe toxicity or damaging properties to become a drug.
- B. A chemical becomes a drug when it is introduced into the body to cause a change.
- C. A chemical is considered a drug when the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) approves its release to be marketed.
- D. A chemical must have demonstrated therapeutic value to become a drug.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A chemical must undergo a series of tests to determine its therapeutic value and efficacy without severe toxicity or damaging properties before it is termed a drug. Test results are reported to the FDA, which may or may not give approval.