Nokea
A 32-week-gestation client was last seen in the prenatal clinic at 28 weeks' gestation. Which of the following changes should the nurse bring to the attention of the certified nurse midwife?
- A. Weight change from 128 pounds to 138 pounds.'
- B. Pulse rate change from 88 bpm to 92 bpm.'
- C. Blood pressure change from 120/80 to 118/78.'
- D. Respiratory rate change from 16 rpm to 20 rpm.'
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because a weight gain of 10 pounds in 4 weeks for a 32-week-gestation client is excessive and may indicate a potential issue such as gestational diabetes or preeclampsia.
B: The pulse rate change is within a normal range for pregnancy.
C: The blood pressure change is minimal and still within normal limits.
D: The respiratory rate change is also within normal limits for pregnancy.
You may also like to solve these questions
The nurse taught a class on HPV and cervical cancer. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. Most HPV infections resolve on their own within 1 to 2 years.
- B. I can get the HPV vaccination to prevent the most common types of HPV that could cause cervical cancer.
- C. Genital warts cause cervical cancer.
- D. A persistent infection of HPV type 16 or 18 can lead to cervical cancer.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Genital warts cause cervical cancer.
Rationale:
1. Genital warts are caused by certain types of HPV, not cervical cancer.
2. Most HPV infections do resolve on their own, making choice A correct.
3. HPV vaccination can prevent common types of HPV that cause cervical cancer, supporting choice B.
4. Persistent infection with high-risk HPV types, like 16 or 18, can lead to cervical cancer, aligning with choice D.
Summary:
Option C is incorrect because it inaccurately states that genital warts cause cervical cancer. The other choices are correct in their statements regarding HPV infections, vaccination, and the relationship between specific HPV types and cervical cancer.
When bathing an infant, what sign does the nurse recognize as a sign of developmental hip dysplasia?
- A. Hypotonicity of the leg muscles
- B. One leg is shorter than the other
- C. Broadening and flattening of the buttocks
- D. Two skinfolds on the back of each thigh
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: One leg is shorter than the other. This is a key sign of developmental hip dysplasia in infants. It indicates an imbalance in the hip joint, leading to unequal leg lengths. This can be detected during routine physical examinations by the nurse.
Incorrect choices:
A: Hypotonicity of the leg muscles - While muscle tone abnormalities can be associated with hip dysplasia, it is not a specific sign that is easily recognizable during bathing.
C: Broadening and flattening of the buttocks - This may be a sign of hip dysplasia in older children but is not a typical indicator in infants.
D: Two skinfolds on the back of each thigh - Although skinfolds can sometimes be present in infants with hip dysplasia, it is not a reliable or specific sign compared to the leg length discrepancy.
A 58-year-old woman tells the nurse that she has started to experience pain during intercourse. The nurse should document that this woman is experiencing which of the following?
- A. Dyspnea
- B. Dyspareunia
- C. Dyspepsia
- D. Dysmenorrhea
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Dyspareunia. Dyspareunia refers to pain during or after sexual intercourse. In this case, the woman is experiencing pain during intercourse, which aligns with the definition of dyspareunia. Dyspnea (A) is difficulty breathing, dyspepsia (C) is indigestion, and dysmenorrhea (D) is painful menstruation, none of which are related to pain during intercourse.
How does HPV manifest in HIV-positive clients?
- A. Cough
- B. Condylomata lata
- C. Condylomata
- D. Chancre
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Condylomata. HPV manifests in HIV-positive clients through the development of genital warts known as condylomata acuminata. This is a common manifestation due to the weakened immune system in HIV-positive individuals. Condylomata lata (choice B) is associated with syphilis, not HPV. Cough (choice A) is not a typical manifestation of HPV in HIV-positive clients. Chancre (choice D) is a primary lesion seen in syphilis, not HPV.
A client has severe preeclampsia. The nurse would expect the primary health care practitioner to order tests to assess the fetus for which of the following?
- A. Severe anemia.'
- B. Hypoprothrombinemia.'
- C. Craniosynostosis.'
- D. Intrauterine growth restriction.'
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR). In severe preeclampsia, there is a risk of placental insufficiency leading to reduced blood flow to the fetus, resulting in IUGR. The primary concern is monitoring the fetus's growth and well-being.
A: Severe anemia is not typically a direct result of severe preeclampsia and is not a primary concern in this situation.
B: Hypoprothrombinemia refers to a deficiency in blood clotting factors and is not directly related to fetal well-being in the context of severe preeclampsia.
C: Craniosynostosis is a condition where the bones in an infant's skull fuse too early, which is a congenital issue and not typically related to preeclampsia.
In summary, the primary concern in severe preeclampsia is assessing fetal growth and well-being due to placental insufficiency, making IUG