A 36-year-old female patient presents to the reproductive medicine clinic for a follow-up appointment. Initial laboratory results are available and indicate diminished ovarian reserve, and her partner's semen analysis is within normal parameters. Which infertility options may be appropriate for this client?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A - Donor oocytes
Rationale:
1. Diminished ovarian reserve suggests poor egg quality or quantity.
2. Using donor oocytes can bypass the issue of diminished ovarian reserve.
3. This option offers a better chance of successful conception compared to other methods due to healthier eggs from the donor.
Summary:
- B: Ovulation induction with clomiphene citrate may not address the underlying issue of diminished ovarian reserve.
- C: Follitropin injections stimulate the patient's own follicles, which may not be optimal in cases of diminished ovarian reserve.
- D: In-vitro fertilization and embryo transfer may not be successful if the patient's eggs are of poor quality or quantity.