Nokea
A 65-year-old man presents at the clinic complaining of nodules on both legs. The man tells the nurse that his son, who is in medical school, encouraged him to seek prompt care and told him that the nodules are related to the fact that he is Jewish. What health problem should the nurse suspect?
- A. Stasis ulcers
- B. Bullous pemphigoid
- C. Psoriasis
- D. Classic Kaposis sarcoma
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Classic Kaposis sarcoma, common in Jewish men aged 40-70, presents as nodules on the lower extremities. Stasis ulcers, bullous pemphigoid, and psoriasis have different presentations.
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While performing an initial assessment of a patient admitted with appendicitis, the nurse observes an elevated blue-black lesion on the patients ear. The nurse knows that this lesion is consistent with what type of skin cancer?
- A. Basal cell carcinoma
- B. Squamous cell carcinoma
- C. Dermatofibroma
- D. Malignant melanoma
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Malignant melanoma often appears as a blue-black lesion with irregular colors and borders. Basal cell carcinoma is waxy with pearly borders, squamous cell carcinoma is scaly and may bleed, and dermatofibroma is a benign, firm nodule.
A patient presents at the free clinic with a black, wart-like lesion on his face, stating, Ive done some research, and Im pretty sure I have malignant melanoma. Subsequent diagnostic testing results in a diagnosis of seborrheic keratosis. The nurse should recognize what significance of this diagnosis?
- A. The patient requires no treatment unless he finds the lesion to be cosmetically unacceptable.
- B. The patients lesion will be closely observed for 6 months before a plan of treatment is chosen.
- C. The patient has one of the few dermatologic malignancies that respond to chemotherapy.
- D. The patient will likely require wide excision.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Seborrheic keratosis is benign and requires no treatment unless cosmetically bothersome. It is not malignant, so chemotherapy or excision is unnecessary, and observation is not required.
A 30-year-old male patient has just returned from the operating room after having a flap done following a motorcycle accident. The patients wife asks the nurse about the major complications following this type of surgery. What would be the nurses best response?
- A. The major complication is when the patient develops chronic pain.
- B. The major complication is when the patient loses sensation in the flap.
- C. The major complication is when the pedicle tears loose and the flap dies.
- D. The major complication is when the blood supply fails and the tissue in the flap dies.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Flap necrosis due to failed blood supply is the primary complication, as it leads to tissue death. Pedicle tearing is less likely, and chronic pain or sensory loss are secondary concerns.
A patient comes to the dermatology clinic requesting the removal of a port-wine stain on his right cheek. The nurse knows that the procedure especially useful in treating cutaneous vascular lesions such as portwine stains is what?
- A. Skin graft
- B. Laser treatment
- C. Chemical face peeling
- D. Free flap
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Laser treatment, such as argon laser, effectively treats vascular lesions like port-wine stains. Skin grafts, chemical peels, and free flaps are not suitable for this purpose.
A 55-year-old woman is scheduled to have a chemical face peel. The nurse is aware that the patient is likely seeking treatment for which of the following?
- A. Wrinkles near the lips and eyes
- B. Removal of acne scars
- C. Vascular lesions on the cheeks
- D. Real or perceived misshaping of the eyes
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Chemical face peeling is effective for wrinkles around the lips, eyes, and forehead. It does not address acne scars, vascular lesions, or eye shape.