Nokea
The nurse is teaching a sex education class to teenage girls. The nurse informs them that which age group should receive a vaccination to prevent HPV infection?
- A. 13-29
- B. 12-26
- C. 9-26
- D. 7-20
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C (9-26) because the HPV vaccine is recommended for both males and females between the ages of 9 and 26. Vaccination at a younger age provides the best protection before exposure to the virus. Choices A, B, and D include age ranges outside the recommended vaccination window, making them incorrect options.
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Which should the nurse recommend to the client to relieve premenstrual syndrome (PMS) symptoms? Select all that apply.
- A. NSAIDs to decrease pain
- B. Exercise 5 to 6 times a week
- C. Decrease caffeine
- D. Decrease fiber
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, decrease fiber intake. High-fiber foods can worsen bloating and digestive issues associated with PMS. By reducing fiber intake, gas and bloating can be minimized, alleviating these symptoms. NSAIDs (A) can help with pain but do not address other PMS symptoms. Exercise (B) can be beneficial, but it may not directly target PMS symptoms. Decreasing caffeine (C) can help with mood swings, but it is not as effective for physical symptoms compared to reducing fiber intake.
A client has severe preeclampsia. The nurse would expect the primary health care practitioner to order tests to assess the fetus for which of the following?
- A. Severe anemia.'
- B. Hypoprothrombinemia.'
- C. Craniosynostosis.'
- D. Intrauterine growth restriction.'
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR). In severe preeclampsia, there is a risk of placental insufficiency leading to reduced blood flow to the fetus, resulting in IUGR. The primary concern is monitoring the fetus's growth and well-being.
A: Severe anemia is not typically a direct result of severe preeclampsia and is not a primary concern in this situation.
B: Hypoprothrombinemia refers to a deficiency in blood clotting factors and is not directly related to fetal well-being in the context of severe preeclampsia.
C: Craniosynostosis is a condition where the bones in an infant's skull fuse too early, which is a congenital issue and not typically related to preeclampsia.
In summary, the primary concern in severe preeclampsia is assessing fetal growth and well-being due to placental insufficiency, making IUG
According to the standard staging classification for breast cancer, which criteria reflects stage 2 breast cancer?
- A. Tumor smaller than 2 cm, no regional lymph node metastasis, no distant metastasis
- B. No evidence of tumor; metastasis to lymph nodes fixed to one another or to other structure but no distant metastasis
- C. Tumor larger than 5 cm; metastasis to lymph nodes fixed to one another or to other structure; no distant metastasis
- D. Tumor larger than 2 to 5 cm; no regional lymph node metastasis; no distant metastasis
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because it aligns with the criteria for stage 2 breast cancer in the standard staging classification. In stage 2, the tumor is typically larger than 2 cm but not larger than 5 cm, there is no regional lymph node metastasis, and there are no distant metastases. Option A is incorrect because the tumor size is smaller than 2 cm, which does not meet the criteria for stage 2. Option B is incorrect as it describes no evidence of tumor with lymph node metastasis, which does not represent stage 2. Option C is incorrect as the tumor size is larger than 5 cm, exceeding the criteria for stage 2.
A client comes to an outpatient clinic for evaluation. What in the client's blood sample reveals that administration of the hepatitis B vaccine has been effective?
- A. Hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg)
- B. anti-HBs
- C. anti-HBc IgM
- D. anti-HBc
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: anti-HBs. This antibody indicates successful immunity after hepatitis B vaccination. It is produced in response to the vaccine and signifies protection against the virus. Choice A, HBsAg, is present in acute infection. Choices C and D, anti-HBc IgM and anti-HBc, indicate acute or chronic infection, not vaccine response.
The client receives zidovudine (Retrovir) for treatment of HIV infection. Which assessment data indicates an adverse reaction to the drug?
- A. Cough
- B. Enlarged lymph nodes
- C. Decreased WBC count
- D. Fever
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Decreased WBC count. Zidovudine is known to cause bone marrow suppression which can lead to a decrease in white blood cell count. This is an adverse reaction as it increases the risk of infections.
A: Cough is not a common adverse reaction to zidovudine.
B: Enlarged lymph nodes are not directly associated with zidovudine adverse reactions.
D: Fever is a non-specific symptom and can occur due to various reasons, not specifically related to zidovudine.
Therefore, the most concerning and relevant assessment data indicating an adverse reaction to zidovudine is a decreased white blood cell count.