Nokea
A client, G4 P4004, states that her husband has just been diagnosed with polycystic kidney disease (PKD), an autosomal dominant disease. The husband is heterozygous for PKD, while the client has no PKD genes. The client states, 'I have not had our children tested because they have such a slim chance of inheriting the disease. We intend to wait until they are teenagers to do the testing.' The nurse should base her reply on which of the following?
- A. Because affected individuals rarely exhibit symptoms before age 60
- B. the children should be allowed to wait until they are adults to be tested.
- C. The woman may be exhibiting signs of denial since each of the couple's children has a 50/50 chance of developing the disease.
- D. Because the majority of the renal cysts that develop in affected individuals are harmless
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Each child of a heterozygous parent has a 50% chance of inheriting the gene.
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Once oogenesis is complete, the resultant gamete cell contains how many chromosomes?
- A. 23
- B. 46
- C. 47
- D. 92
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Oogenesis results in a haploid gamete with 23 chromosomes.
A patient is prescribed clomiphene citrate. What should the nurse explain about this medication?
- A. It is an injectable medication for ovulation induction.
- B. It stimulates the pituitary gland to release hormones necessary for ovulation.
- C. It suppresses ovulation to regulate the menstrual cycle.
- D. It is used to treat polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) symptoms only.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because clomiphene citrate works by stimulating the pituitary gland to release hormones necessary for ovulation. This helps in the treatment of infertility by inducing ovulation in women who do not ovulate regularly. Option A is incorrect because clomiphene citrate is not an injectable medication. Option C is incorrect because clomiphene citrate does not suppress ovulation, but rather stimulates it. Option D is incorrect because clomiphene citrate is used for ovulation induction, not just for treating PCOS symptoms.
What is the significance of a semen analysis in evaluating infertility?
- A. It determines the number, shape, and movement of sperm.
- B. It checks for genetic conditions affecting sperm.
- C. It monitors hormone levels in males.
- D. It identifies infections in the reproductive tract.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because a semen analysis assesses important parameters such as sperm count, morphology (shape), and motility (movement), which are crucial factors in male fertility. Sperm count indicates the quantity of sperm available for fertilization. Morphology assesses the structural integrity of sperm, while motility determines their ability to reach and fertilize an egg. These parameters directly impact fertility potential.
Choice B is incorrect because a semen analysis does not specifically check for genetic conditions affecting sperm. Choice C is incorrect as hormone levels are not directly evaluated in a semen analysis. Choice D is incorrect because while infections can affect fertility, they are not the primary focus of a standard semen analysis.
A nurse is evaluating the effectiveness of preconception education. Which statement by the client indicates additional education is needed?
- A. I know smoking is harmful in pregnancy, so I plan to quit soon. My husband has agreed to avoid smoking in my presence.
- B. I have started taking a daily prenatal vitamin with folic acid.
- C. My husband bought a small desk for his laptop computer.
- D. We plan to avoid the use of chemicals in our garden this year.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because buying a small desk for a laptop computer is unrelated to preconception education. This statement does not demonstrate any understanding or action related to preparing for a healthy pregnancy. Choices A, B, and D all show a proactive approach towards preconception health by addressing smoking cessation, prenatal vitamin intake with folic acid, and avoiding harmful chemicals, respectively.
A woman, who has undergone amniocentesis, has been notified that her baby is XX with a 14/21 robertsonian chromosomal translocation. The nurse helps the woman to understand which of the following?
- A. The baby will have a number of serious genetic defects.
- B. It is likely that the baby will be unable to have children when she grows up.
- C. Chromosomal translocations are common and rarely problematic.
- D. An abortion will probably be the best decision under the circumstances.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Robertsonian translocations are generally asymptomatic and not problematic.