Nokea
A client is being treated for gonorrhea. Which medication combination should the nurse expect to be prescribed?
- A. Ceftriaxone and azithromycin
- B. Penicillin and ceftriaxone
- C. Tetracycline and azithromycin
- D. Levofloxacin and azithromycin
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ceftriaxone and azithromycin. Ceftriaxone is the first-line treatment for gonorrhea due to increasing resistance to other antibiotics. Azithromycin is often prescribed in combination to treat possible co-infection with chlamydia. Penicillin (B) is not effective against gonorrhea. Tetracycline (C) is not recommended due to resistance issues. Levofloxacin (D) is no longer recommended due to resistance concerns. The combination of ceftriaxone and azithromycin covers both gonorrhea and possible chlamydia co-infection effectively.
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The client calls the nurse and states she has not had a menstrual cycle in 3 months. What does the nurse know is the most common cause of secondary amenorrhea?
- A. Weight loss
- B. Pregnancy
- C. Cancer
- D. Menopause
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pregnancy. In the case of secondary amenorrhea, where a woman stops menstruating after previously having regular cycles, pregnancy is the most common cause. Pregnancy leads to a halt in the menstrual cycle due to hormonal changes to support the developing fetus. Other choices are incorrect: A) Weight loss can affect menstruation but is not the most common cause of secondary amenorrhea. C) Cancer can also disrupt the menstrual cycle, but it is not the primary cause in this scenario. D) Menopause typically occurs in women in their late 40s to early 50s, and would not be the most common cause of secondary amenorrhea in a younger woman.
Which should the nurse recommend to the client to relieve premenstrual syndrome (PMS) symptoms? Select all that apply.
- A. NSAIDs to decrease pain
- B. Exercise 5 to 6 times a week
- C. Decrease caffeine
- D. Decrease fiber
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, decrease fiber intake. High-fiber foods can worsen bloating and digestive issues associated with PMS. By reducing fiber intake, gas and bloating can be minimized, alleviating these symptoms. NSAIDs (A) can help with pain but do not address other PMS symptoms. Exercise (B) can be beneficial, but it may not directly target PMS symptoms. Decreasing caffeine (C) can help with mood swings, but it is not as effective for physical symptoms compared to reducing fiber intake.
The nurse is teaching a sex education class to teenage girls. The nurse informs them that which age group should receive a vaccination to prevent HPV infection?
- A. 13-29
- B. 12-26
- C. 9-26
- D. 7-20
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C (9-26) because the HPV vaccine is recommended for both males and females between the ages of 9 and 26. Vaccination at a younger age provides the best protection before exposure to the virus. Choices A, B, and D include age ranges outside the recommended vaccination window, making them incorrect options.
A client with a history of herpes simplex virus (HSV-2) infection asks the nurse about future sexual activity. Which response is most appropriate?
- A. If the infection has healed, you do not have to use a condom.
- B. Refrain from all sexual activity.
- C. Use a condom during sexual activity only if the infection becomes active again.
- D. Inform all potential sexual partners about the infection, even if it is inactive.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
1. Informing all potential sexual partners about the HSV-2 infection, even if inactive, is crucial to ensure transparency and promote informed decision-making.
2. HSV-2 can be transmitted even when symptoms are not present, so partners need to be aware of the risk.
3. This approach demonstrates respect for the partners' autonomy and enables them to make choices regarding their own health.
Summary:
A: Incorrect. Using a condom is important even when the infection is inactive to prevent transmission.
B: Incorrect. Refraining from all sexual activity may not be necessary if proper precautions are taken.
C: Incorrect. Using a condom only when the infection is active does not fully address the risk of transmission during asymptomatic periods.
A nurse working in a community clinic is teaching a client about chlamydia. Which statement made by the client would indicate a need for further instruction?
- A. Treatment is also required for individuals who are asymptomatic.
- B. Individuals can only spread the infection if symptomatic.
- C. All pregnant women should be screened for chlamydia.
- D. Any sexually active individuals can be infected with chlamydia.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because it is incorrect. Chlamydia can be spread by individuals who are asymptomatic, so the statement that individuals can only spread it if symptomatic is inaccurate. Asymptomatic individuals can still transmit the infection to others. Therefore, this statement indicates a need for further instruction. Choices A, C, and D are all correct statements. Treatment is necessary for asymptomatic individuals to prevent complications, pregnant women should be screened for chlamydia to prevent transmission to the baby, and any sexually active individuals can indeed be infected with chlamydia.