Nokea
A woman is noted to have multiple soft warts on her perineum and rectal areas. The nurse suspects that this client has which type of infection?
- A. HIV
- B. HPV
- C. Syphilis
- D. Herpes simplex virus
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: HPV. Human papillomavirus (HPV) causes soft warts in the perineum and rectal areas. HPV is a common sexually transmitted infection known to cause genital warts. The other choices are incorrect because HIV does not typically present with warts, syphilis manifests with painless sores rather than soft warts, and herpes simplex virus causes painful blisters rather than soft warts in the specified areas.
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When the client is started on antiretroviral drugs for HIV, what will be important for the nurse to teach the client?
- A. This drug will cure the disease over a period of time.
- B. This drug will not cure the disease but could extend your life expectancy.
- C. This type of drug will be used prior to vaccines.
- D. This drug is readily available all over the world.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: This drug will not cure the disease but could extend your life expectancy. Antiretroviral drugs for HIV do not cure the disease but help manage it by reducing viral load and boosting immune function, extending life expectancy. Choice A is incorrect because currently, there is no cure for HIV. Choice C is incorrect as antiretroviral drugs are not used prior to vaccines but are used to treat HIV infection. Choice D is incorrect because the availability of antiretroviral drugs may vary worldwide.
Which infant is most likely to express Rh incompatibility?
- A. Infant of an Rh-negative mother and a father who is Rh positive and homozygous for the Rh factor.
- B. Infant who is Rh negative and a mother who is Rh negative.
- C. Infant of an Rh-negative mother and a father who is Rh positive and heterozygous for the Rh factor.
- D. Infant who is Rh positive and a mother who is Rh positive.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale:
1. Rh incompatibility occurs when the mother is Rh-negative and the father is Rh-positive.
2. If the father is homozygous for Rh factor (AA), all offspring will be Rh-positive.
3. The Rh-positive offspring from an Rh-negative mother can lead to Rh incompatibility.
4. Therefore, the infant of an Rh-negative mother and a father who is Rh positive and homozygous for the Rh factor is most likely to express Rh incompatibility.
Summary:
- Choice B is incorrect because both mother and infant are Rh-negative.
- Choice C is incorrect because the father being heterozygous for the Rh factor would not result in all offspring being Rh-positive.
- Choice D is incorrect as both mother and infant are Rh-positive, so there is no risk of Rh incompatibility.
The client calls the nurse and states she has not had a menstrual cycle in 3 months. What does the nurse know is the most common cause of secondary amenorrhea?
- A. Weight loss
- B. Pregnancy
- C. Cancer
- D. Menopause
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pregnancy. In the case of secondary amenorrhea, where a woman stops menstruating after previously having regular cycles, pregnancy is the most common cause. Pregnancy leads to a halt in the menstrual cycle due to hormonal changes to support the developing fetus. Other choices are incorrect: A) Weight loss can affect menstruation but is not the most common cause of secondary amenorrhea. C) Cancer can also disrupt the menstrual cycle, but it is not the primary cause in this scenario. D) Menopause typically occurs in women in their late 40s to early 50s, and would not be the most common cause of secondary amenorrhea in a younger woman.
A 40-year-old woman has just been diagnosed with stage 2 breast cancer. Which of the following are common reactions? Select all that apply.
- A. Anxiety regarding changes in family reactions, body image, disability, and pain
- B. Concern about disruptions related to treatment
- C. Fear of death
- D. Decisional conflict related to controversies about treatment options
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Anxiety is common due to the impact on family, body image, disability, and pain. Concern about treatment disruptions is valid but not as common as anxiety. Fear of death is a general fear but may not be as prominent as anxiety. Decisional conflict can occur but is more specific to treatment options rather than a common reaction.
The nurse is preparing a 51-year-old client for a vaginal examination. The nurse should place the client in which position?
- A. Prone
- B. Lateral Sims’
- C. Lithotomy
- D. High Fowler’s
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Lithotomy position. This position allows for optimal visualization of the vaginal area and easier access for the examination. The client lies on their back with knees flexed and feet in stirrups, providing proper exposure. Prone (A) is face down and not suitable for a vaginal exam. Lateral Sims' (B) is on the side and not ideal for this exam. High Fowler's (D) is sitting upright, which is not appropriate for a vaginal examination.