Nokea
A client with a history of angina pectoris reports chest pain while ambulating in the corridor. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Check the client's vital signs.
- B. Assist the client to sit or lie down.
- C. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin.
- D. Apply nasal oxygen at a rate of 2 L/min.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When a client with a history of angina pectoris experiences chest pain while ambulating, the priority action for the nurse is to assist the client to sit or lie down. This helps reduce the demand on the heart by decreasing physical exertion. Checking vital signs, administering medication, or applying oxygen can follow once the client is in a more comfortable position. Checking vital signs (Choice A) may be important but addressing the immediate discomfort by positioning the client comfortably takes precedence. Administering sublingual nitroglycerin (Choice C) is appropriate but should come after ensuring the client's comfort. Applying nasal oxygen (Choice D) can be beneficial, but it should not be the first action; assisting the client to sit or lie down is the initial priority.
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Phase I oxidative-reductive processes of drug metabolism require certain nutritional elements. Which of the following would reduce or inhibit this process?
- A. Protein malnutrition
- B. Iron-deficiency anemia
- C. Both 1 and 2
- D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Choice A is correct because phase I metabolism, involving cytochrome P450 enzymes, relies on protein for enzyme synthesis; malnutrition impairs this, reducing metabolism. Choice B is incorrect as iron deficiency affects oxygen transport, not directly phase I processes. Choice C is wrong since only protein malnutrition, not iron deficiency, is directly relevant. Choice D is incorrect because protein malnutrition does impact metabolism.
The healthcare provider is monitoring a client following cardioversion. Which observation should be of the highest priority to the healthcare provider?
- A. Blood pressure
- B. Status of airway
- C. Oxygen flow rate
- D. Level of consciousness
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The status of the airway is the highest priority following cardioversion as it ensures proper oxygenation and helps prevent complications such as airway obstruction and respiratory distress. Maintaining a patent airway is crucial for the client's respiratory function and overall well-being immediately after cardioversion. Monitoring the airway ensures that the client can breathe effectively and minimizes the risk of hypoxia and other serious respiratory issues. While blood pressure, oxygen flow rate, and level of consciousness are also important parameters to monitor, they are secondary to ensuring a clear and patent airway for adequate oxygenation.
What predisposing factor most likely contributed to the proximal end of the femur fracture in a 62-year-old woman who lives alone and tripped on a rug in her home?
- A. Failing eyesight leading to an unsafe environment
- B. Renal osteodystrophy from chronic kidney disease (CKD)
- C. Osteoporosis from declining hormone levels
- D. Cerebral vessel changes causing transient ischemic attacks
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The most likely predisposing factor contributing to the proximal end of the femur fracture in a 62-year-old woman is osteoporosis resulting from declining hormone levels. Osteoporosis weakens the bones, making them more susceptible to fractures, especially in older adults, particularly women. In this case, the fracture can be attributed to the bone density loss associated with osteoporosis, which is a common concern in postmenopausal women. Choices A, B, and D are less likely to have directly contributed to the femur fracture in this scenario. Failing eyesight may increase the risk of falls but does not directly weaken the bones. Renal osteodystrophy affects bone health but is less common in this age group. Cerebral vessel changes causing transient ischemic attacks are related to vascular issues, not bone strength.
A client diagnosed with hypertension is prescribed atenolol (Tenormin). The nurse should monitor the client for which common side effect of this medication?
- A. Tachycardia
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Hypotension
- D. Increased appetite
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Atenolol is a beta-blocker that works by lowering blood pressure. A common side effect of atenolol is hypotension, where blood pressure drops too low. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for signs and symptoms of hypotension to prevent any complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because tachycardia (fast heart rate), dry mouth, and increased appetite are not common side effects of atenolol. Hypotension is the expected side effect due to the medication's mechanism of action.
Drugs that may cause anticholinergic effects include:
- A. Diphenhydramine
- B. Atenolol
- C. Lisinopril
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Choice A is correct because diphenhydramine has strong anticholinergic effects (e.g., confusion, dry mouth), risky in the elderly, per Beers Criteria. Choice B is incorrect as atenolol (beta blocker) lacks anticholinergic action. Choice C is wrong because lisinopril (ACE inhibitor) doesn't affect cholinergic systems. Choice D is incorrect since only diphenhydramine applies.