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A couple is considering ICSI (Intracytoplasmic Sperm Injection) as part of IVF. What should the nurse explain?
- A. ICSI is only used for couples with unexplained infertility.
- B. ICSI involves injecting a single sperm directly into an egg.
- C. ICSI guarantees fertilization and successful pregnancy.
- D. ICSI eliminates the need for ovarian stimulation.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because ICSI involves injecting a single sperm directly into an egg to facilitate fertilization. This method is used when there are issues with sperm quality or quantity. It is not limited to couples with unexplained infertility (choice A), does not guarantee successful pregnancy (choice C), and does not eliminate the need for ovarian stimulation (choice D). Therefore, choice B is the most accurate explanation of what ICSI entails.
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A nurse is caring for several women in labor. The nurse determines that which woman is the latent phase of labor?
- A. contractions every 5 minutes, cervical dilation 3 cm
- B. contractions every 3 minutes, cervical dilation 6 cm
- C. contractions every 2 1/2 minutes, cervical dilation 8 cm
- D. contractions every 1 minute, cervical dilation 9 cm
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Contractions every 5 minutes with cervical dilation of 3 cm is typical of the latent phase of labor. This phase is characterized by early labor with mild contractions and slow cervical dilation. The other scenarios describe more advanced stages of labor with faster contractions and greater cervical dilation, indicating the active phase.
A client is receiving Pergonal (menotropins) intramuscularly for ovarian stimulation. Which of the following is a common side effect of this therapy?
- A. Piercing rectal pain.
- B. Mood swings.
- C. Visual disturbances.
- D. Jerky tremors.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Mood swings are a known side effect of hormonal therapies like Pergonal.
A client has been notified that because of fallopian tube obstruction, her best option for becoming pregnant is through in vitro fertilization. The client asks the nurse about the procedure. Which of the following responses is correct?
- A. During the stimulation phase of the procedure
- B. the physician will make sure that only one egg reaches maturation.
- C. Preimplantation genetic diagnosis will be performed on your partner's sperm before they are mixed with your eggs.
- D. After ovarian stimulation
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Extra embryos can be cryopreserved for future use.
What is the role of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) in the menstrual cycle?
- A. To stimulate the release of a mature egg.
- B. To promote the growth and maturation of ovarian follicles.
- C. To thicken the uterine lining for implantation.
- D. To regulate progesterone production post-ovulation.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: To promote the growth and maturation of ovarian follicles. FSH plays a crucial role in the menstrual cycle by stimulating the development of ovarian follicles in the ovary. As FSH levels rise, it triggers the growth of multiple follicles, one of which will eventually mature and release an egg during ovulation. Choice A is incorrect because it is actually luteinizing hormone (LH) that triggers the release of a mature egg. Choice C is incorrect as thickening of the uterine lining is primarily influenced by estrogen and progesterone. Choice D is incorrect because progesterone production is mainly regulated by luteinizing hormone (LH) and not FSH.
Analyze the pedigree below. Which of the following inheritance patterns does the pedigree depict?
- A. Autosomal dominant.
- B. Mitochondrial inheritance.
- C. X-linked recessive.
- D. Y-linked trait.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The pattern suggests autosomal dominant inheritance.