A demarcated unraised red-purple lesion caused by capillaries below the skin on a child's face is a
- A. nevus vasculosus (strawberry mark)
- B. nevus flammeus (port-wine stain)
- C. erythema toxicum
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Port-wine stains are vascular malformations present at birth.
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If a woman’s menstrual cycle began on June 2, on which date should ovulation mostly likely have occurred?
- A. Jun-10
- B. Jun-16
- C. Jun-29
- D. Jul-05
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The menstrual cycle is typically 28 days, with ovulation occurring around day 14. In this case, if the cycle started on June 2, ovulation would likely occur around June 16, which is 14 days after the start. Choice A (Jun-10) is too early for ovulation. Choice C (Jun-29) and D (Jul-05) are too late based on the standard 28-day cycle. Therefore, choice B (Jun-16) is the correct answer based on the expected timing of ovulation in a typical menstrual cycle.
Which option could be used for the treatment and management of a patient who reports mild pain associated with a clinical diagnosis of fibrocystic breast disease?
- A. Chamomile tea as a relaxant therapy
- B. C M U S N T O
- C. Danazol (Danocrin
Correct Answer: E
Rationale: I apologize for the incomplete question, making it impossible to provide a correct answer and rationale. To effectively analyze and provide a detailed explanation, I would need complete information regarding the potential treatment options and their relevance to managing fibrocystic breast disease.
The chromosomal disorder CORRECTLY matched with its karyotype is:
- A. Turner’s syndrome – 45X0
- B. Klinefelter’s syndrome – XYY
- C. Patau’s syndrome – Trisomy 21
- D. Edward’s syndrome – Trisomy 13
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale:
1. Turner's syndrome is characterized by a missing X chromosome, resulting in a karyotype of 45X0.
2. Klinefelter's syndrome involves an extra X chromosome, leading to a karyotype of 47XXY.
3. Patau's syndrome is Trisomy 13, not Trisomy 21.
4. Edward's syndrome is Trisomy 18, not Trisomy 13.
Therefore, the correct answer is A because Turner's syndrome is correctly matched with a karyotype of 45X0.
A prolapsed uterus results from weakening of the supporting ligaments of the uterus, which permits retroflexion (backward tilt) and descent of the uterus into the vagina.
- A. TRUE
- B. FALSE
- C. NA
- D. NA
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Weakening of the supporting ligaments can lead to a prolapsed uterus.
Neonatal jaundice that is present in the first 24 hours of life is considered
- A. physiologic
- B. pathologic
- C. unconjugated
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Jaundice appearing within the first 24 hours is pathologic and requires further evaluation.