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A Gram-stained sputum smear revealed Gram-positive rods in chains with central spores. The patient presented with severe pneumonia. What is the causative agent?
- A. Bacillus anthracis
- B. Clostridium tetani
- C. Streptococcus pneumoniae
- D. Klebsiella pneumoniae
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bacillus anthracis. The presence of Gram-positive rods in chains with central spores on the Gram stain indicates Bacillus anthracis. This bacterium is known to cause severe pneumonia. Clostridium tetani does not typically cause pneumonia but rather tetanus. Streptococcus pneumoniae is a Gram-positive cocci, not rods. Klebsiella pneumoniae is a Gram-negative bacterium commonly associated with pneumonia, but it does not form central spores.
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Which of the following bacteria produce toxins that can cause severe gastrointestinal illness?
- A. Vibrio cholerae
- B. Clostridium difficile
- C. Escherichia coli
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, "All of the above," because all three bacteria listed (Vibrio cholerae, Clostridium difficile, Escherichia coli) produce toxins that can cause severe gastrointestinal illness. Vibrio cholerae produces cholera toxin leading to severe diarrhea. Clostridium difficile produces toxins causing antibiotic-associated diarrhea. Escherichia coli can produce toxins such as Shiga toxin causing severe gastrointestinal symptoms. Therefore, all the options listed are correct in producing toxins that can result in severe gastrointestinal illness.
For treatment of Anthrax are used
- A. Penicillins, tetracyclins, macrolides
- B. anti-anthrax gamma-globulins
- C. anti-anthrax immune-serum
- D. all of the above
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the treatment for Anthrax involves using antibiotics such as penicillins, tetracyclines, and macrolides to target the bacteria. Anti-anthrax gamma-globulins and immune-serum are used to provide passive immunity, but they are not the primary treatment. Therefore, options A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not encompass all the necessary components for treating Anthrax. Overall, using a combination of antibiotics and immune-based treatments like gamma-globulins and immune-serum provides a comprehensive approach to managing Anthrax infection.
A 33 year old patient was delivered to the infectious diseases department on the 7-th day of disease. He complained about great weakness, high temperature, pain in the lumbar area and leg muscles, icteritiousness, dark color of urine, headache. The acute disease started with chill, body temperature rise up to 40oC, headache, pain in the lumbar area and sural muscles. Icterus turned up on the 4th day, nasal and scleral haemorrhages came on the 5th day. Fever has lasted for 6 days. Diuresis - 200 ml. What is the most probable diagnosis?
- A. Leptospirosis
- B. Typhoid fever
- C. Virus A hepatitis
- D. Sepsis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The most probable diagnosis is Leptospirosis. The symptoms described align with the classic presentation of Leptospirosis, such as fever, muscle pain, headache, jaundice, and hemorrhages. The initial symptoms of chills, high fever, and muscle pain followed by jaundice and hemorrhages are characteristic of Leptospirosis. The presence of dark urine and low diuresis also point towards kidney involvement, which is common in Leptospirosis due to renal failure. Additionally, the patient's history of potential exposure to contaminated water or soil supports the diagnosis, as Leptospirosis is commonly transmitted through contact with infected animal urine.
Summary of other choices:
- Typhoid fever typically presents with sustained fever, abdominal pain, and constipation, not matching the symptoms described.
- Virus A hepatitis usually presents with jaundice, but other symptoms such as muscle pain and hemorrhages are not typical.
- Sepsis is a systemic response
On the base of the clinical data a child was diagnosed with atypical pneumonia resistant to the effects of beta-lactam antibiotics. The patient's sputum was cultured and incubated in a special medium, which resulted in growth of microorganisms forming microscopic colonies with a dense center (looking like fried eggs). What microorganism caused the disease?
- A. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
- B. Klebsiella pneumoniae
- C. Str. pneumoniae
- D. L. pneumophila
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Mycoplasma pneumoniae. Mycoplasma pneumoniae is a common cause of atypical pneumonia and is known to be resistant to beta-lactam antibiotics. The description of microorganisms forming microscopic colonies with a dense center resembling fried eggs is characteristic of Mycoplasma pneumoniae colonies seen on special media.
Summary of other choices:
B: Klebsiella pneumoniae is not typically associated with atypical pneumonia and does not exhibit the described colony morphology.
C: Streptococcus pneumoniae is not resistant to beta-lactam antibiotics and does not produce colonies with the described appearance.
D: Legionella pneumophila is associated with Legionnaires' disease, not atypical pneumonia, and does not form colonies resembling fried eggs.
In which phase of mitosis do the chromatids separate?
- A. Prophase
- B. Metaphase
- C. Anaphase
- D. Telophase
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In anaphase, sister chromatids separate and move towards opposite poles of the cell. This is facilitated by the shortening of microtubules attached to the centromeres. Prophase is the phase where chromosomes condense and the nuclear envelope breaks down. Metaphase is when chromosomes align at the metaphase plate. Telophase is when the nuclear envelope reforms and chromosomes decondense. Therefore, anaphase is the correct phase for chromatid separation.