A healthcare professional is preparing to administer verapamil by IV bolus to a client who is experiencing cardiac dysrhythmias. For which of the following adverse effects should the healthcare professional monitor when giving this medication?
- A. Hyperthermia
- B. Hypotension
- C. Ototoxicity
- D. Muscle pain
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Verapamil is known to cause hypotension as one of its adverse effects due to its vasodilatory properties. Therefore, it is essential for the healthcare professional to monitor the client's blood pressure closely during and after administration to prevent complications such as severe hypotension. Hyperthermia, ototoxicity, and muscle pain are not commonly associated with verapamil administration, making choices A, C, and D incorrect.
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What does it mean when a medication has a half-life?
- A. It only lasts for 30 minutes after the medication is given
- B. How long it takes for half of the dose to be eliminated from the bloodstream
- C. It is the peak of how effective the medicine is
- D. Drug is greatly reduced before it reaches the systemic circulation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When a medication has a half-life, it refers to the time it takes for half of the dose to be eliminated from the bloodstream. This parameter is crucial in understanding the duration of action and dosing intervals for medications in clinical practice. Choice A is incorrect as the half-life is not about how long the medication lasts but about elimination from the body. Choice C is incorrect because the half-life is not about the peak effectiveness of the medicine. Choice D is incorrect as it does not accurately define the concept of half-life.
The nurse is caring for a client receiving tamoxifen (Nolvadex) for breast cancer. Which side effect should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Hot flashes
- B. Hair loss
- C. Nausea
- D. Diarrhea
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Tamoxifen, an estrogen receptor modulator, treats breast cancer but blocks estrogen in some tissues, causing hot flashes , a common menopausal-like effect. Monitoring this ensures client comfort and adherence, as it's frequent and distressing. Hair loss is more chemotherapy-related, not tamoxifen. Nausea and diarrhea occur less often and are less specific. Hot flashes align with tamoxifen's anti-estrogenic action, a key consideration in breast cancer management where long-term use is common. This focus aids in symptom management, distinguishing it from cytotoxic effects, making A the priority side effect to monitor.
A patient is receiving an IV infusion of heparin and was started on warfarin therapy the night
- A. Which statement is most correct?
- B. The patient is receiving a double dose of anticoagulants.
- C. The heparin therapy was ineffective, so the warfarin was starte
- D. The heparin provides anticoagulation until therapeutic levels of warfarin are reache
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct statement is that the heparin provides anticoagulation until therapeutic levels of warfarin are reached. Heparin has an immediate onset of action and is used initially to rapidly provide anticoagulation. Warfarin, on the other hand, has a delayed onset of action and requires several days to reach therapeutic levels in the bloodstream. Therefore, heparin is often overlapped with warfarin until the latter reaches its full anticoagulant effect. This overlapping strategy helps prevent a gap in anticoagulation and reduces the risk of blood clots. So, the statement that the heparin provides anticoagulation until therapeutic levels of warfarin are reached is the most correct in this case.
The following drugs exert their principal effects by enzyme inhibition:
- A. Pyridostigmine
- B. Atropine
- C. Amlodipine
- D. Selegiline
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
The following are first-line drugs for hypertension in diabetics with proteinuria:
- A. Lisinopril
- B. Losartan
- C. Amlodipine
- D. Hydrochlorothiazide
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.