Nokea
A nurses colleague has applied an incontinence pad Select all that apply.
- A. Dietary history
- B. What principle
- C. Family history of renal stones
- D. Medication history
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dietary history. Understanding the patient's dietary habits can help identify potential triggers for incontinence, such as caffeine or alcohol intake. It also provides insight into fluid intake, which can impact incontinence.
Incorrect choices:
B: What principle - This is vague and does not provide relevant information for managing incontinence.
C: Family history of renal stones - While family history can be important for certain conditions, it is not directly related to managing incontinence.
D: Medication history - While medications can sometimes contribute to incontinence, dietary factors are typically more significant in this context.
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A patient has undergone the creation of an Indiana been asked about actions to reduce the risk of bladder pouch for the treatment of bladder cancer. The nurse
- A. addresses a major risk factor for bladder cancer? How can the nurse best address the effects of this
- B. Smoking cessation urinary diversion on the patients body image?
- C. Reduction of alcohol intake
- D. Emphasize that the diversion is an integral part of
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because addressing a major risk factor for bladder cancer, such as smoking, is crucial in preventing recurrence. Smoking is a well-established risk factor for bladder cancer, so educating the patient on smoking cessation is essential. This step can significantly reduce the risk of developing bladder cancer again.
Choice B is incorrect as it focuses on body image concerns, which are important but not directly related to reducing the risk of bladder cancer. Choice C is incorrect because while reducing alcohol intake is beneficial for overall health, it is not a major risk factor for bladder cancer. Choice D is incorrect as it does not directly address a specific risk factor for bladder cancer like smoking does.
What piece of the patient's medical history supports the diagnosis of a urinary tract infection?
- A. The patient's wife had a urinary tract infection 1 month ago.
- B. The patient has been followed for prostate disease for 2 years.
- C. The patient had intermittent catheterization 6 months ago.
- D. The patient had a kidney stone removed 1 year ago.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because a history of intermittent catheterization increases the risk of urinary tract infections due to potential introduction of bacteria into the urinary system. This directly supports the diagnosis of a urinary tract infection.
A: The wife's history is irrelevant unless the patient had direct contact or shared personal items with her.
B: Prostate disease does not directly correlate with a urinary tract infection.
D: Kidney stones are not directly related to urinary tract infections unless there was an associated infection during the stone removal.
When performing a genitourinary assessment on a 16-year-old male adolescent, the nurse notices a swelling in the scrotum that increases with increased intra-abdominal pressure and decreases when he is lying down. The patient complains of pain when straining. The nurse knows that this description is most consistent with a(n) ______ hernia.
- A. Femoral.
- B. Incisional.
- C. Direct inguinal.
- D. Indirect inguinal.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Indirect inguinal hernia. In an indirect inguinal hernia, the swelling in the scrotum increases with increased intra-abdominal pressure due to the herniation of abdominal contents through the internal inguinal ring. The swelling decreases when lying down because the contents reduce back into the abdominal cavity. Pain with straining is also characteristic of an indirect inguinal hernia.
A: Femoral hernia presents as a bulge in the upper thigh and is more common in females.
B: Incisional hernia occurs at the site of a previous surgical incision and is not typically affected by intra-abdominal pressure.
C: Direct inguinal hernia protrudes directly through the abdominal wall and is typically not palpable in the scrotum.
When assessing a newborn infant's genitalia, the nurse notices that the genitalia are somewhat engorged. The labia majora are swollen, the clitoris looks large, and the hymen is thick. The vaginal opening is difficult to visualize. The infant's mother states that she is worried about the labia being swollen. The nurse should reply:
- A. This is a normal finding in newborns and should resolve within a few weeks.
- B. This finding could indicate an abnormality and may need to be evaluated by a physician.
- C. We will need to have estrogen levels evaluated to ensure that they are within normal limits.
- D. We will need to keep close watch over the next few days to see if the genitalia decrease in size.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Neonatal genital engorgement is a common finding due to maternal hormones.
Step 2: Maternal hormones can cause swelling of the labia majora, clitoris, and thickening of the hymen.
Step 3: This physiological phenomenon typically resolves within a few weeks post-birth.
Step 4: The nurse should reassure the mother that this is a normal finding in newborns.
Summary: Choice A is correct because it aligns with the normal physiological process, while the other options suggest unnecessary interventions or monitoring that are not indicated in this situation.
Which of the following drug is a radical curative in plasmodium vivax malaria and is used as prophylaxis for malaria at Chloroquine sensitive regions
- A. Quinine
- B. Primaquine
- C. Mefloquine
- D. Chloroquine
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Primaquine. Primaquine is a radical curative drug for Plasmodium vivax malaria, targeting the liver stage of the parasite to prevent relapse. It is also used as prophylaxis in Chloroquine sensitive regions due to its effectiveness against both the liver and blood stages of the parasite. Quinine (A) is mainly used for treating severe malaria. Mefloquine (C) is used for prophylaxis but not as a radical curative for Plasmodium vivax. Chloroquine (D) is effective against Plasmodium vivax but not as a radical curative.