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A patient asks about the purpose of egg retrieval in IVF. What should the nurse explain?
- A. Egg retrieval removes immature eggs for storage.
- B. It collects mature eggs from the ovaries for fertilization in the lab.
- C. Egg retrieval monitors ovarian reserve.
- D. It is performed after implantation to confirm pregnancy.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: It collects mature eggs from the ovaries for fertilization in the lab.
Rationale:
1. Egg retrieval in IVF involves retrieving mature eggs from the woman's ovaries to be fertilized with sperm in a laboratory setting.
2. These fertilized eggs (embryos) are then transferred back into the uterus for potential implantation.
3. This process is crucial for successful IVF as it allows for controlled fertilization outside the body.
Summary of other choices:
A: Incorrect. Egg retrieval is not for storing immature eggs but for obtaining mature eggs for immediate fertilization.
C: Incorrect. Egg retrieval is not for monitoring ovarian reserve; this is typically done through other tests.
D: Incorrect. Egg retrieval occurs before implantation to collect eggs for fertilization, not after implantation.
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Analyze the pedigree below. Which of the following inheritance patterns does the pedigree depict?
- A. Autosomal dominant.
- B. Mitochondrial inheritance.
- C. X-linked recessive.
- D. Y-linked trait.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The pattern suggests autosomal dominant inheritance.
Which situation best describes secondary infertility in a couple?
- A. Never conceived.
- B. Had repeated spontaneous abortions.
- C. Not conceived after 1 year of unprotected intercourse.
- D. Has one child but cannot conceive a second time.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because secondary infertility refers to the inability of a couple to conceive after having one or more children without any fertility issues. This situation indicates that the couple had a successful pregnancy in the past but is now facing difficulties conceiving again.
A, B, and C are incorrect:
A: Never conceived - This does not align with the definition of secondary infertility as it involves a previous successful pregnancy.
B: Had repeated spontaneous abortions - This refers to recurrent pregnancy loss, not secondary infertility.
C: Not conceived after 1 year of unprotected intercourse - This describes primary infertility, not secondary infertility.
The nurse is teaching a patient about Follistim AQ, a medication prescribed for ovulation induction. What information should be included?
- A. Eggs or oocytes develop within ovarian follicles. The medication stimulates their development.
- B. Follistim is a manufactured form of FSH, a hormone released during the menstrual cycle.
- C. Rapid weight gain is typical during ovulation induction.
- D. Side effects include breast tenderness and changes in mood.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Follistim AQ is a medication used for ovulation induction.
Step 2: The medication contains FSH, a hormone that stimulates follicular development.
Step 3: Eggs (oocytes) develop within ovarian follicles during the menstrual cycle.
Step 4: Follistim AQ stimulates the growth and development of ovarian follicles.
Step 5: Therefore, Option A is correct as it accurately explains how Follistim AQ works.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
B: While Follistim is a form of FSH, the key point is its role in stimulating follicular development, not just being a manufactured hormone.
C: Rapid weight gain is not a typical effect of ovulation induction with Follistim AQ.
D: Side effects like breast tenderness and mood changes may occur, but they are not the primary focus of educating a patient about how the medication works.
A nurse is teaching about sperm freezing for fertility preservation. What should be included in the education?
- A. Sperm freezing is only effective for men over 40 years old.
- B. Frozen sperm can be stored indefinitely with proper conditions.
- C. Sperm quality improves after freezing and thawing.
- D. Frozen sperm must be used within one year.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because frozen sperm can indeed be stored indefinitely with proper conditions such as constant low temperatures. This allows men to preserve their fertility for an extended period. Choice A is incorrect as sperm freezing is effective for men of all ages, not just those over 40. Choice C is incorrect because sperm quality may decline slightly after freezing and thawing. Choice D is incorrect as properly stored frozen sperm can maintain viability for many years, not just within one year.
What is the primary purpose of Preimplantation Genetic Testing (PGT) in IVF?
- A. To increase the number of embryos available for transfer.
- B. To identify genetic abnormalities in embryos before implantation.
- C. To enhance uterine receptivity for implantation.
- D. To stimulate egg production during ovarian stimulation.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: To identify genetic abnormalities in embryos before implantation. PGT is used to screen embryos for genetic disorders before implantation in IVF to prevent the transmission of genetic diseases to the offspring. By identifying abnormalities, only healthy embryos are selected for transfer, increasing the chances of a successful pregnancy. Other choices are incorrect as PGT does not directly impact the number of embryos available (A), uterine receptivity (C), or egg production (D) during IVF.