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A patient undergoing ovarian stimulation asks about the purpose of frequent ultrasounds. What should the nurse explain?
- A. Ultrasounds monitor embryo development after transfer.
- B. They assess the growth and development of ovarian follicles.
- C. They confirm ovulation has occurred naturally.
- D. Ultrasounds are used to visualize uterine contractions.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because frequent ultrasounds are used to monitor the growth and development of ovarian follicles during ovarian stimulation. This is essential to ensure proper timing for ovulation induction or egg retrieval. Ultrasounds do not monitor embryo development after transfer (choice A), confirm natural ovulation (choice C), or visualize uterine contractions (choice D) in this context.
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What is the role of pelvic ultrasound in infertility evaluation?
- A. To evaluate ovarian reserve directly.
- B. To visualize uterine and ovarian structures.
- C. To measure hormone levels in the bloodstream.
- D. To identify genetic abnormalities in embryos.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, as pelvic ultrasound allows visualization of uterine and ovarian structures. This is essential in assessing conditions like fibroids, polyps, ovarian cysts, and structural abnormalities that may affect fertility. Ovarian reserve evaluation (A) involves separate tests like AMH levels. Hormone levels (C) are typically measured through blood tests. Genetic abnormalities in embryos (D) are usually identified through preimplantation genetic testing, not pelvic ultrasound.
A couple undergoing IVF asks about the risk of multiple pregnancies. What should the nurse discuss?
- A. Transferring multiple embryos increases the risk of multiples, which can lead to complications.
- B. Single embryo transfers always result in twins or higher multiples.
- C. Multiple pregnancies have no impact on maternal or fetal health.
- D. The number of embryos transferred does not affect pregnancy outcomes.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
1. Transferring multiple embryos increases the chance of multiple pregnancies, which can lead to complications such as preterm birth and low birth weight.
2. This is an important consideration for the couple undergoing IVF to understand the potential risks involved.
3. Single embryo transfers reduce the risk of multiples and associated complications.
4. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they provide inaccurate information that contradicts the known risks associated with multiple pregnancies.
A man has inherited the gene for familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP), an autosomal dominant disease. He and his wife wish to have a baby. Which of the following would provide the couple with the highest probability of conceiving a healthy child?
- A. Amniocentesis.
- B. Chorionic villus sampling.
- C. Pre-implantation genetic diagnosis.
- D. Gamete intrafallopian transfer.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Pre-implantation genetic diagnosis allows screening of embryos before implantation.
A nurse is educating a couple about lifestyle factors that impact fertility. What recommendation should the nurse give?
- A. Avoid moderate alcohol consumption.
- B. Reduce stress levels through relaxation techniques.
- C. Increase protein intake for better egg quality.
- D. Use over-the-counter fertility supplements.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Reduce stress levels through relaxation techniques. Stress can negatively impact fertility by disrupting hormone levels and ovulation. Relaxation techniques can help manage stress, promoting better reproductive health.
A: Avoiding moderate alcohol consumption is important for fertility, but stress reduction has a more direct impact.
C: While protein is essential for overall health, there is no direct evidence linking increased protein intake to improved egg quality.
D: Using over-the-counter fertility supplements may not be necessary if stress reduction can improve fertility outcomes without additional interventions.
The nurse is instructing a client on taking her basal body temperature. What is the primary purpose of this test?
- A. To determine if the client's cervical mucus contains enough estrogen to support sperm motility.
- B. To identify if the client's temperature rises 1 to 5 days after midcycle.
- C. To assess whether surgical correction of uterine pathology is needed.
- D. To identify if the client is experiencing blockage of the uterine cavity and fallopian tubes.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rationale: The correct answer is B because basal body temperature rises 1 to 5 days after midcycle, indicating ovulation. This helps determine the client's most fertile period for conception. Choice A is incorrect as basal body temperature does not assess cervical mucus. Choice C is incorrect as it does not evaluate uterine pathology. Choice D is incorrect as basal body temperature does not assess blockage of uterine cavity or fallopian tubes.