A woman undergoing evaluation of infertility states, "At least when we're through with all of these tests, we will know what is wrong." The nurse's best response is
- A. "I know the test will identify what is wrong."
- B. "I'm sure that once you finish these tests, your problem will be resolved."
- C. "Even with diagnostic testing, infertility remains unexplained in about 20% of couples."
- D. "Once you've identified your problem, you may want to look at the option of adoption."
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because it acknowledges the uncertainty in diagnosing infertility, which can remain unexplained in about 20% of couples even after testing. This response is the best because it provides realistic information without giving false hope or making assumptions.
Choice A is incorrect because it asserts that the tests will definitely identify the problem, which is not always the case. Choice B is incorrect as it assumes the problem will be resolved after testing, which may not be true. Choice D is incorrect as it jumps to the conclusion of adoption without addressing the uncertainty of infertility testing.
You may also like to solve these questions
Of the following karyotype results, which indicates a finding of Turner syndrome?
- A. 46 XY
- B. 46 YY
- C. 46 XX
- D. 46 X
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Certainly. The correct answer is D (46 X) for Turner syndrome. Turner syndrome is characterized by a missing or partially missing X chromosome in females. Therefore, a karyotype of 45,X or 46,X would indicate Turner syndrome. Choice A (46 XY) is a normal male karyotype, B (46 YY) is not a valid karyotype, and C (46 XX) is a normal female karyotype.
A client is to receive Pergonal (menotropins) injections for infertility prior to in vitro fertilization. Which of the following is the expected action of this medication?
- A. Prolongation of the luteal phase.
- B. Stimulation of ovulation.
- C. Suppression of menstruation.
- D. Promotion of cervical mucus production.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Pergonal stimulates ovulation by promoting the maturation and release of ova.
A woman who has had multiple miscarriages is advised to go through genetic testing. The client asks the nurse the rationale for this recommendation. The nurse should base his or her response on which of the following?
- A. The woman's pedigree may exhibit a mitochondrial inheritance pattern.
- B. The majority of miscarriages are caused by genetic defects.
- C. A woman's chromosomal pattern determines her fertility.
- D. There is a genetic marker that detects the presence of an incompetent cervix.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Genetic defects are a common cause of recurrent miscarriages.
A patient asks about the purpose of AMH (Anti-Müllerian Hormone) testing. What should the nurse explain?
- A. AMH testing predicts the exact time of ovulation.
- B. AMH levels indicate ovarian reserve and egg quantity.
- C. AMH is used to confirm pregnancy success after IVF.
- D. AMH determines sperm quality in male partners.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: AMH levels indicate ovarian reserve and egg quantity. This is because Anti-Müllerian Hormone (AMH) is primarily secreted by the ovaries and its levels in the blood reflect the number of remaining follicles in the ovaries, which correlates with ovarian reserve and egg quantity. This information is vital for assessing a woman's fertility potential, especially in the context of fertility treatments such as in vitro fertilization (IVF). Choice A is incorrect as AMH testing does not predict the exact time of ovulation, it assesses ovarian reserve. Choice C is incorrect as AMH testing is not used to confirm pregnancy success after IVF, but rather to determine the likelihood of successful response to ovarian stimulation. Choice D is incorrect as AMH does not determine sperm quality in male partners, as it is a hormone produced by the ovaries and is not related to male reproductive function.
What should the nurse emphasize when discussing healthy BMI and fertility with a patient?
- A. A healthy BMI has no impact on fertility outcomes.
- B. A BMI within the normal range supports hormonal balance and ovulation.
- C. BMI only matters during pregnancy, not before conception.
- D. Low BMI always improves fertility rates.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because a BMI within the normal range is associated with improved hormonal balance and ovulation, which are crucial factors for fertility. This is supported by research showing that both underweight and overweight BMI can negatively impact fertility. Choice A is incorrect as BMI does impact fertility outcomes. Choice C is incorrect as BMI plays a role before conception as well. Choice D is incorrect as a low BMI can actually decrease fertility rates due to hormonal imbalances.