After a 26-yr-old patient has been treated for pelvic inflammatory disease, the nurse will plan to teach about the
- A. use of hormone therapy (HT).
- B. potential complication of infertility.
- C. irregularities in the menstrual cycle
- D. changes in secondary sex characteristics.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B - potential complication of infertility. Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) can lead to scarring and damage to the reproductive organs, increasing the risk of infertility. Teaching about this potential complication is crucial for the patient's understanding of the long-term consequences of PID. Option A (use of hormone therapy) is not directly related to PID treatment. Option C (irregularities in the menstrual cycle) may occur but is not the primary concern post-PID treatment. Option D (changes in secondary sex characteristics) is not a common complication of PID. Therefore, option B is the most appropriate choice for teaching post-PID treatment.
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In a typical 28 days female reproductive cycle, on which day following the beginning of the menstrual period is the level of luteinizing hormone most likely to be highest?
- A. Day 5
- B. Day 7.
- C. Day 14.
- D. Day 14.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C (Day 14). On day 14 of a typical 28-day female reproductive cycle, the level of luteinizing hormone (LH) is most likely to be highest. This is because day 14 corresponds to ovulation, which is triggered by a surge in LH. Ovulation occurs when the mature egg is released from the ovary, and LH surge is crucial in this process. Therefore, the peak level of LH is expected on day 14.
Incorrect Choices:
A: Day 5 - Too early in the cycle for LH surge.
B: Day 7 - Still early in the cycle for LH surge.
D: Day 21 - LH surge typically occurs around day 14, not day 21.
Anterior to the vagina and urethral openings is the
- A. Labia majora
- B. Labia minor
- C. Mons pubis
- D. Cervical sphincter
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Labia majora. The labia majora are located anterior to the vagina and urethral openings, providing protection and support. The labia minora are internal to the labia majora. The mons pubis is the rounded mass of fatty tissue located over the pubic symphysis. Cervical sphincter is not a relevant anatomical structure in this context. Therefore, the labia majora is the correct choice based on its anatomical location and function.
The ovary connects by ligaments to:
- A. the uterus;
- B. the Fallopian tubes;
- C. the rectum;
- D. the pelvic walls;
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: the uterus. The ovary connects to the uterus via ligaments called ovarian ligaments. This connection is essential for the transfer of eggs from the ovary to the uterus during the menstrual cycle and for providing support to the ovary. The other choices are incorrect as the ovary does not directly connect to the Fallopian tubes (B), rectum (C), or pelvic walls (D) via ligaments. The connection to the uterus is crucial for reproductive functions and maintaining the structural integrity of the female reproductive system.
In teaching a class of adolescents about sexually transmitted diseases, a nurse includes which information about the human papillomavirus (HPV)?
- A. HPV is fragile and not easily transmitted.
- B. Wartlike growths in the genital area are a sign of HPV infection.
- C. There is a specific blood test needed to screen for HPV.
- D. Heavy, purulent vaginal discharge is the primary sign of HPV.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Wartlike growths in the genital area are a sign of HPV infection. This is because HPV often manifests as genital warts. HPV is a common sexually transmitted infection that can lead to various health issues, including genital warts and certain types of cancers. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because HPV is not fragile, does not require a specific blood test for screening, and does not typically present with heavy, purulent vaginal discharge.
Causes of per vaginal bleeding include
- A. Cervical cancer
- B. Endometrial cancer
- C. Leiomyoma
- D. Endometrial carcinoma
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cervical cancer. Cervical cancer can cause abnormal vaginal bleeding due to the presence of cancerous cells in the cervix. This can lead to spotting or bleeding between periods. Endometrial cancer (choice B) and endometrial carcinoma (choice D) specifically involve the endometrium, not the cervix. Leiomyoma (choice C) refers to uterine fibroids, which can cause heavy menstrual bleeding but are not typically associated with vaginal bleeding outside of menstruation. Therefore, the correct choice is A as it directly relates to per vaginal bleeding, while the other choices are not directly linked to this symptom.